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Vol. 145, No. 25 — June 18, 2011

BANK OF CANADA

FINANCIAL STATEMENTS (YEAR ENDED DECEMBER 31, 2010)
FINANCIAL REPORTING RESPONSIBILITY

The accompanying financial statements of the Bank of Canada have been prepared by management in accordance with Canadian generally accepted accounting principles and contain certain items that reflect best estimates and judgment of management. The integrity and reliability of the data in these financial statements are management’s responsibility. Management is responsible for ensuring that all information in the Annual Report is consistent with the financial statements.

In support of its responsibility for the integrity and reliability of these financial statements and for the accounting system from which they are derived, management has developed and maintains a system of internal controls to provide reasonable assurance that transactions are properly authorized and recorded, that financial information is reliable, that the assets are safeguarded and liabilities recognized, and that the operations are carried out effectively. The Bank has an internal Audit Department whose functions include reviewing internal controls, including accounting and financial controls and their application.

The Board of Directors is responsible for overseeing that management’s responsibilities for financial reporting and internal controls are fulfilled and exercises this oversight through the Audit and Finance Committee of the Board. The Audit and Finance Committee is composed of members who are neither officers nor employees of the Bank and who are financially literate. The Audit and Finance Committee is therefore qualified to review the Bank’s annual financial statements and to recommend their approval by the Board of Directors. The Audit and Finance Committee meets with management, the Chief Internal Auditor, and the Bank’s external auditors who are appointed by Order-in-Council. The Audit and Finance Committee has established processes to evaluate the independence of the Bank’s external auditors and reviews all services provided by them. The Audit and Finance Committee has a duty to review the adoption of, and changes in, accounting principles and procedures that have a material effect on the financial statements, and to review and assess key management judgments and estimates material to the reported financial information.

These financial statements for the year ended December 31, 2010, have been audited by the Bank’s external auditors, KPMG LLP and PricewaterhouseCoopers LLP, and their report is presented herein. The external auditors have full and unrestricted access to the Audit and Finance Committee to discuss their audit and related findings.

Ottawa, Canada, February 15, 2011

M. CARNEY
Governor
S. VOKEY, CA
Chief Accountant

INDEPENDENT AUDITORS’ REPORT

To the Minister of Finance, registered shareholder of the Bank of Canada (the “Bank”)

We have audited the accompanying financial statements of the Bank, which comprise the balance sheet as at December 31, 2010, and statements of net income, comprehensive income, changes in capital, and cash flows for the year then ended, and a summary of significant accounting policies and other explanatory information.

Management’s responsibility for the financial statements

Management is responsible for the preparation and fair presentation of these financial statements in accordance with Canadian generally accepted accounting principles, and for such internal control as management determines is necessary to enable the preparation of financial statements that are free from material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error.

Auditors’ responsibility

Our responsibility is to express an opinion on these financial statements based on our audit. We conducted our audit in accordance with Canadian generally accepted auditing standards. Those standards require that we comply with ethical requirements and plan and perform the audit to obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free from material misstatement.

An audit involves performing procedures to obtain audit evidence about the amounts and disclosures in the financial statements. The procedures selected depend on the auditors’ judgment, including the assessment of the risks of material misstatement of the financial statements, whether due to fraud or error. In making those risk assessments, the auditors consider internal control relevant to the entity’s preparation and fair presentation of the financial statements in order to design audit procedures that are appropriate in the circumstances, but not for the purpose of expressing an opinion on the effectiveness of the entity’s internal control. An audit also includes evaluating the appropriateness of accounting policies used and the reasonableness of accounting estimates made by management, as well as evaluating the overall presentation of the financial statements.

We believe that the audit evidence we have obtained is sufficient and appropriate to provide a basis for our audit opinion.

Opinion

In our opinion, the financial statements present fairly, in all material respects, the financial position of the Bank as at December 31, 2010, and the results of its operations and its cash flows for the year then ended in accordance with Canadian generally accepted accounting principles.

Ottawa, Canada, February 15, 2011

KPMG LLP
Chartered Accountants
Licensed Public Accountants

PRICEWATERHOUSECOOPERS LLP
Chartered Accountants
Licensed Public Accountants

BANK OF CANADA

Balance sheet

Year ended December 31
(Millions of dollars)

2010

2009

ASSETS

   

Cash and foreign deposits (note 3)

   

Loans and receivables

4.7

20.4

Securities purchased under resale agreements (note 4a)

2,062.4

25,374.8

Advances to members of the Canadian Payments Association (note 4b)

22.5

-

Other receivables

2.1

2.2

 

2,087.0

25,377.0

Investments (note 5)

   

Treasury bills of Canada

24,906.1

13,684.0

Government of Canada bonds

33,550.6

31,986.2

Other investments

38.0

38.0

 

58,494.7

45,708.2

Property and equipment (note 7)

149.3

150.5

Other assets (note 8)

149.1

98.6

 

60,884.8

71,354.7

LIABILITIES AND CAPITAL

   

Bank notes in circulation (note 9)

57,874.2

55,467.9

Deposits (note 10)

   

Government of Canada

1,869.4

11,847.6

Members of the Canadian Payments Association

47.5

2,999.6

Other deposits

639.9

703.0

 

2,556.8

15,550.2

Other liabilities (note 11)

323.8

199.8

 

60,754.8

71,217.9

Capital (note 13)

130.0

136.8

 

60,884.8

71,354.7

Commitments, contingencies, and guarantees (note 15)

M. CARNEY
Governor

S. VOKEY, CA
Chief Accountant

DAVID H. LAIDLEY, FCA
Chair, Audit and Finance Committee

W. A. BLACK
Lead Director
On behalf of the Board

(See accompanying notes to the financial statements.)

BANK OF CANADA

Statement of net income

Year ended December 31
(Millions of dollars)

2010

2009

REVENUE

   

Interest earned on investments

1,525.3

1,619.8

Interest earned on securities purchased under resale agreements

38.4

178.2

Dividend revenue

10.1

4.5

Realized gains on sales of treasury bills of Canada

-

16.1

Other revenue

11.5

11.1

Interest expense on deposits

(42.0)

(109.0)

 

1,543.3

1,720.7

EXPENSE by function (notes 1 and 14)

   

Monetary policy

75.4

75.2

Financial system

54.8

51.8

Currency

148.5

144.8

Funds management

111.8

105.2

 

390.5

377.0

NET INCOME

1,152.8

1,343.7

BANK OF CANADA

Statement of comprehensive income

Year ended December 31
(Millions of dollars)

2010

2009

NET INCOME

1,152.8

1,343.7

OTHER COMPREHENSIVE INCOME

   

Change in net unrealized gains on available-for-sale assets

(8.5)

(60.0)

Reclassification of gains on available-for-sale assets realized during year

-

(16.1)

 

(8.5)

(76.1)

COMPREHENSIVE INCOME

1,144.3

1,267.6

(See accompanying notes to the financial statements.)


BANK OF CANADA

Statement of changes in capital

Year ended December 31
(Millions of dollars)

2010

2009

SHARE CAPITAL

5.0

5.0

STATUTORY RESERVE

25.0

25.0

SPECIAL RESERVE

100.0

100.0

RETAINED EARNINGS

   

Balance, beginning of year

-

-

Net income

1,152.8

1,343.7

Transfer to Receiver General for Canada

(1,151.1)

(1,343.7)

Balance, end of year

1.7

-

ACCUMULATED OTHER COMPREHENSIVE INCOME

   

Balance, beginning of year

6.8

82.9

Other comprehensive income

(8.5)

(76.1)

Balance, end of year

(1.7)

6.8

CAPITAL (note 13)

130.0

136.8

(See accompanying notes to the financial statements.)


BANK OF CANADA

Statement of cash flows

Year ended December 31
(Millions of dollars)

2010

2009

CASH FLOWS FROM OPERATING ACTIVITIES

   

Interest received

1,606.0

2,000.3

Dividends received

10.1

4.5

Other income received

11.8

13.0

Interest paid

(42.0)

(109.0)

Payments to suppliers and employees

(403.3)

(390.4)

Net (increase) decrease in advances to members of the Canadian Payments Association

(22.5)

1,900.6

Net increase in deposits

(12,993.4)

(8,862.9)

Proceeds from maturity of securities purchased under resale agreements

60,784.5

236,367.8

Acquisition of securities purchased under resale agreements

(37,506.3)

(226,463.2)

Repayments of securities sold under repurchase agreements

(470.0)

(724.8)

Proceeds from securities sold under repurchase agreements

470.0

724.8

Net cash provided by operating activities

11,444.9

4,460.7

CASH FLOWS FROM INVESTING ACTIVITIES

   

Net increase in Treasury bills of Canada

(11,180.9)

(2,177.3)

Purchases of Government of Canada bonds

(5,924.2)

(6,537.8)

Proceeds from maturity of Government of Canada bonds

4,302.2

3,817.4

Purchase of property and equipment

(15.1)

(25.9)

Net cash used in investing activities

(12,818.0)

(4,923.6)

CASH FLOWS FROM FINANCING ACTIVITIES

   

Net increase in bank notes in circulation

2,406.3

1,736.6

Amount paid to Receiver General for Canada

(1,048.6)

(1,372.3)

Net cash provided by financing activities

1,357.7

364.3

EFFECT OF EXCHANGE RATE CHANGES ON FOREIGN CURRENCY

(0.3)

(0.5)

NET DECREASE IN CASH AND FOREIGN DEPOSITS

(15.7)

(99.1)

CASH AND FOREIGN DEPOSITS, BEGINNING OF YEAR

20.4

119.5

CASH AND FOREIGN DEPOSITS, END OF YEAR

4.7

20.4

(See accompanying notes to the financial statements.)

BANK OF CANADA

Notes to the financial statements

Year ended December 31, 2010

(Amounts in the notes to the financial statements are in millions of Canadian dollars, unless otherwise stated.)

1. The business of the Bank of Canada

The responsibilities of the Bank of Canada (the Bank) focus on the goals of low and stable inflation, financial system stability, a safe and secure currency, and the efficient management of government funds and public debt. These responsibilities are carried out as part of the broad functions described below.

Monetary policy

Contributes to solid economic performance and rising living standards for Canadians by keeping inflation low, stable and predictable.

Financial system

Promotes a safe, sound and efficient financial system, both within Canada and internationally.

Currency

Designs, produces, and distributes Canada’s bank notes, focusing on counterfeit deterrence through research on security features, public education, and partnership with law enforcement; replaces and destroys worn notes.

Funds management

Provides high-quality, effective and efficient funds-management services: for the Government of Canada, as its fiscal agent; for the Bank; and for other clients.

2. Significant accounting policies

The financial statements of the Bank are in accordance with Canadian generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) and conform to the disclosure and accounting requirements of the Bank of Canada Act and the Bank’s bylaws. The significant accounting policies of the Bank are summarized below. These standards have been consistently applied to both years, unless otherwise stated.

The preparation of financial statements in accordance with Canadian GAAP requires management to make estimates and assumptions based on information available at the financial statement date. Actual results could differ from these estimates. These estimates are primarily in the area of pension and other employee future benefits and fair values of certain financial instruments and collateral taken.

  • (a) Translation of foreign currencies
  • Investment income denominated in foreign currencies is translated at the rate in effect at the date of the transaction.
  • Assets and liabilities denominated in foreign currencies are translated to Canadian dollars at the rates of exchange prevailing at the balance-sheet dates. The resulting gains and losses are included in Other revenue.
  • (b) Financial instruments
  • Financial instruments are measured at fair value on initial recognition. Subsequent to initial recognition, they are accounted for based on their classification. Transaction costs are expensed as incurred for all classes of financial instruments. The Bank accounts for all financial instruments using settlement date accounting.
  • Subsequent to initial recognition, financial assets classified as available-for-sale (AFS) are measured at fair value using quoted market prices or at cost if the instruments are not traded in an active market. Unrealized changes in values of AFS financial assets held at fair value are recognized in Other Comprehensive Income.
  • The Bank’s financial assets designated as AFS consist of the Treasury bills of Canada and Other investments portfolios.
  • Subsequent to initial recognition, financial assets classified as held-to-maturity (HTM) are measured at amortized cost less any impairment losses using the effective interest method. The Government of Canada bonds portfolio is classified as HTM.
  • The Bank has not classified any of its financial assets as held-for-trading (HFT).
  • All other financial assets are classified as loans and receivables. Subsequent to initial recognition, these are measured at amortized cost less any impairment losses using the effective interest method.
  • Subsequent to initial recognition, financial liabilities are measured at amortized cost using the effective interest method, with the exception of bank notes in circulation, which are measured at face value. The Bank has not classified any of its financial liabilities as HFT.
  • (c) Securities purchased under resale agreements
  • Securities purchased under resale agreements are reverse repo-type transactions in which the Bank purchases securities from designated counterparties with an agreement to sell them back at a predetermined price on an agreed transaction date. For accounting purposes, these agreements are treated as collateralized lending transactions and are recorded on the balance sheet at the amounts at which the securities were originally acquired plus accrued interest.
  • (d) Securities sold under repurchase agreements
  • Securities sold under repurchase agreements are repo-type transactions in which the Bank sells Government of Canada securities to designated counterparties with an agreement to buy them back at a predetermined price on an agreed transaction date. For accounting purposes, these agreements are treated as collateralized borrowing transactions and are recorded on the balance sheet at the amounts at which the securities were originally sold plus accrued interest.
  • (e) Securities-Lending Program
  • The Bank operates a Securities-Lending Program to support the liquidity of Government of Canada securities by providing a secondary and temporary source of these securities to the market. These securities-lending transactions are fully collateralized by securities and are generally one business day in duration. The securities loaned continue to be accounted for as investment assets. Lending fees charged by the Bank on these transactions are included in Other revenue at the maturity date of the transaction.
  • (f) Property and equipment
  • Property and equipment consists of land, buildings, computer hardware, other equipment, intangible assets, and projects in progress. Property and equipment is recorded at cost less accumulated amortization, except for land which is not amortized, and is net of any related impairment loss. Projects in progress are recorded at cost but not amortized until the asset is available for use. Cost includes expenditure that is directly attributable to the acquisition of the asset.
  • Intangible assets are non-monetary assets without physical substance. The Bank’s intangible assets consist of computer software and computer software components included in projects in progress. Costs that are directly associated with the acquisition or internal development of identifiable software which will, in management’s best estimate, provide a future economic benefit to the Bank are recognized as intangible assets (note 7).
  • Amortization is calculated using the straight-line method and is applied over the estimated useful lives of the assets, as shown below.

    Buildings

    25 to 40 years

    Computer hardware

    3 to 7 years

    Other equipment

    5 to 15 years

    Intangible assets

    3 to 15 years


  • When completed, projects in progress are classified according to the above categories.
  • (g) Employee benefit plans
  • The Bank sponsors a number of defined-benefit plans that provide pension and other post-retirement and post-employment benefits to its eligible employees. The Bank accrues its obligations under these benefit plans and the related costs, net of plan assets. The costs and the obligations of the plans are actuarially determined using the projected benefit method and using management’s best estimate of the expected investment performance of the plans, salary escalation, retirement ages of employees, and expected health-care costs.
  • The benefit plan expense (income) for the year consists of the current service cost, the interest cost, the expected return on plan assets, and the amortization of unrecognized past service costs, actuarial losses (gains), as well as the transitional obligation (asset). Calculation of the expected return on assets for the year is based on the market value of plan assets using a market-related value approach. The market-related value of plan assets is determined using a methodology where the difference between the actual and expected return on the market value of plan assets is amortized over five years.
  • The excess of the net accumulated actuarial loss (gain) over 10% of the greater of the benefit obligation and the market-related value of plan assets is amortized over the expected average remaining service lifetime (EARSL) of plan members. Past service costs arising from plan amendments are deferred and amortized on a straight-line basis over the EARSL at the date of amendments.
  • On January 1, 2000, the Bank adopted the new accounting standard on employee future benefits using the prospective application method. The initial transitional balances are amortized on a straight-line basis over the EARSL, as at the date of adoption.
  • (h) Bank notes
  • The cost of finished bank notes is expensed as incurred.
  • (i) Revenue recognition
  • Investments
  • Interest revenue earned on treasury bills and bonds is recorded using the effective interest method.
  • Dividend revenue on the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) shares is recorded as dividends are declared.
  • Realized gains on the sale of treasury bills of Canada are recorded at the time of sale as a reclassification from Other Comprehensive Income and are calculated as the excess of proceeds over the amortized cost.
  • Other
  • Interest earned on securities purchased under resale agreements is recorded using the effective interest method.
  • Other revenue is comprised mostly of interest earned on advances to members of the Canadian Payments Association and is recorded using the effective interest method.
  • (j) Future accounting changes
  • International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS)
  • On October 28, 2009, the Public Sector Accounting Board approved an amendment to the scope of public sector accounting standards requiring government business entities to report under IFRS for the years beginning on or after January 1, 2011. As a government business entity, the Bank will be required to report under IFRS beginning with the year ended December 31, 2011, and to present its 2010 comparative figures in compliance with IFRS, which will then be reconciled to the Canadian GAAP figures previously reported.
  • The Bank continues to evaluate the impact of these new standards on the recognition, measurement, presentation, and disclosure of financial statement items.
  • As a result of work completed to the reporting date, management anticipates that employee future benefits, financial instruments and property and equipment will be the areas of the financial statements most significantly affected.
  • The International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) has several projects under way, some of which will have an impact on standards that are relevant to the Bank. In particular, the Bank is closely monitoring the progress of projects on financial instruments, employee benefits and leases that may result in revised standards being issued during 2011. Any revisions made to these standards may cause management to revisit its assessment of transitional impacts.

3. Cash and foreign deposits

Cash and foreign deposits is composed of highly liquid demand deposits with other central banks or international institutions and Canadian-dollar demand deposits used for operational purposes. Included in this balance is CAN$1.2 million (CAN$3.3 million in 2009) of U.S. dollars.

4. Loans and receivables

Loans and receivables are comprised primarily of securities purchased under resale agreements and, if any, advances to members of the Canadian Payments Association. These transactions are fully collateralized in accordance with publicly disclosed collateral eligibility and margin requirements. Financial risks related to these instruments are discussed in note 6.

  • (a) Securities purchased under resale agreements
  • Securities purchased under resale agreements for terms of one business day are acquired through buyback transactions with primary dealers in Government of Canada securities to reinforce the target overnight interest rate.
  • Securities purchased under resale agreements for terms of longer than one business day are acquired through an auction process for the purposes of providing liquidity in support of the efficient functioning of financial markets. Details of these auctions are announced by the Bank in advance. Bids are submitted on a yield basis, and funds are allocated in descending order of bid yields.
  • Balances outstanding at December 31 consist of agreements with original terms to maturity ranging from 20 to 34 days. (Balances outstanding at December 31, 2009, consist of agreements with original terms to maturity ranging from 84 to 363 days.)
  • (b) Advances to members of the Canadian Payments Association
  • Advances to members of the Canadian Payments Association is typically comprised of liquidity loans made under the Bank’s Standing Liquidity Facility. These advances mature the next business day. Interest on overnight advances is calculated at the Bank Rate.
  • In 2009, these advances included term advances made through the Bank’s Term Loan Facility. This facility ended in October 2009.

5. Investments

In Other investments, the Bank holds 9 441 BIS shares in order to participate in the BIS and in international initiatives generally. Ownership of the BIS shares is limited to central banks, and new shares can only be acquired following an invitation to subscribe extended by the BIS Board of Directors. The shares are non-transferable unless prior written consent is obtained from the BIS. BIS shares are classified as AFS but are measured at cost, since they do not have a quoted market value in an active market.

Financial risks relating to Investments are discussed in note 6.

6. Financial instruments and risk

The Bank’s financial instruments consist of cash and foreign deposits, securities purchased under resale agreements, advances to members of the Canadian Payments Association, other receivables, investments, bank notes in circulation, deposits, and other liabilities (net of post-employment and post-retirement obligations).

Fair value of financial instruments

  • (a) Carrying amount and fair value of financial instruments
  • The fair values of financial assets and liabilities are presented in the following table.
2010 2009

Carrying amount

Fair value

Carrying amount

Fair value

Financial assets

       

Cash and foreign deposits

4.7

4.7

20.4

20.4

Securities purchased under resale agreements

2,062.4

2,062.4

25,374.8

25,377.5

Advances to members of the Canadian Payments Association

22.5

22.5

-

-

Other receivables

2.1

2.1

2.2

2.2

Treasury bills of Canada

24,906.1

24,906.1

13,684.0

13,684.0

Government of Canada bonds

33,550.6

36,296.4

31,986.2

34,128.0

Other investments

38.0

305.9

38.0

307.1

 

60,586.4

63,600.1

71,105.6

73,519.2

Financial liabilities

       

Bank notes in circulation

57,874.2

57,874.2

55,467.9

55,467.9

Deposits

2,556.8

2,556.8

15,550.2

15,550.2

Other financial liabilities

175.6

175.6

61.7

61.7

 

60,606.6

60,606.6

71,079.8

71,079.8

  • (b) Financial instruments measured at fair value
  • Treasury bills of Canada are measured at fair value using unadjusted quoted market prices in an active market.
  • (c) Financial instruments not measured at fair value
  • Fair values of securities purchased under resale agreements are determined using market yields to maturity for similar instruments available at the balance sheet date.
  • Fair values of Government of Canada bonds are determined based on unadjusted quoted market prices in an active market.
  • The fair value of the BIS shares is estimated as being 70% of the Bank’s interest in the net asset value (NAV) of the BIS as of November 30, 2010. This 30% discount to the NAV is based on a decision by the International Court at The Hague relating to a share repurchase by the BIS in 2001 and has been used by the BIS to determine the pricing of any new shares issued since that time.
  • The amortized cost of advances to members of the Canadian Payments Association, other receivables, deposits, and other financial liabilities (which is composed of other liabilities, excluding the portion representing accrued post-retirement and post-employment benefits liabilities as described in note 12) approximates fair value, given their short-term nature. The face value of bank notes in circulation is equal to their fair value.

Financial risk

The Bank is exposed to credit risk, market risk, and liquidity risk as a result of holding financial instruments. The following is a description of those risks and how the Bank manages its exposure to them.

  • (a) Credit risk
  • Credit risk is the risk that a counterparty to a financial contract will fail to discharge its obligations in accordance with agreed-upon terms.
  • The Bank is exposed to credit risk through its investment portfolio, advances to members of the Canadian Payments Association, and through market transactions conducted in the form of securities purchased under resale agreements and loans of securities. The maximum exposure to credit risk is estimated to be the carrying value of the items listed above. There are no past due or impaired amounts.
  • Advances to members of the Canadian Payments Association and securities purchased under resale agreements are fully collateralized loans. Collateral is taken in accordance with the Bank’s publicly disclosed eligibility criteria and margin requirements accessible on its Web site. Strict eligibility criteria are set for all collateral, and the Bank requires excess collateral relative to the size of the loan provided.
  • In the unlikely event of a counterparty default, collateral can be liquidated to offset credit exposure. The credit quality of collateral is managed through a set of restrictions based on asset type, term to maturity, and the credit ratings of the securities pledged.
  • Concentration of credit risk
  • The Bank’s investment portfolio, representing 97% of the carrying value of its total assets (64% in 2009), is essentially free of credit risk because the securities held are primarily direct obligations of the Government of Canada. The Bank’s advances to members of the Canadian Payments Association and securities purchased under resale agreements, representing 3% of the carrying value of its total assets (36% in 2009), are collateralized obligations of various Canadian-based financial institutions.
  • Collateral is concentrated in the following major categories:

2010

2009

$

%

$

%

Securities issued or guaranteed by the Government of Canada

2,126.9

100.0

15,517.3

58.3

Securities issued or guaranteed by a provincial government

-

-

8,621.4

32.3

Securities issued by a municipality

-

-

239.6

0.9

Corporate securities

-

-

1,918.5

7.2

Asset-backed commercial paper

-

-

359.0

1.3

Total fair value of collateral pledged

2,126.9

100.0

26,655.8

100.0

As a percentage of amortized cost

103%

 

105%

 
  • (b) Market risk
  • Market risk is the risk that the fair value or future cash flows of a financial instrument will fluctuate because of changes in market prices. Market risk comprises three types of risk: interest rate risk, currency risk, and other price risk.
  • Interest rate risk
  • Interest rate risk is the risk that the fair value or future cash flows of a financial instrument will fluctuate because of changes in market interest rates.
  • The Bank’s investment in treasury bills and bonds acts as a counterpart to the non-interest-bearing bank notes in circulation liability, and supports the Bank’s operational independence to conduct monetary policy. These assets are acquired in proportions that broadly resemble the structure of the Government of Canada’s domestic debt outstanding to reduce interest rate risk from the perspective of the Government of Canada.
  • The Bank’s exposure to fair-value interest rate risk arises principally through its investment in treasury bills. The aforementioned instruments are short term in duration. The fair value of the treasury bills of Canada portfolio held by the Bank is exposed to fluctuations owing to changes in market interest rates since these securities are classified as AFS and are measured at fair value. Unrealized gains and losses on the treasury bills of Canada portfolio are recognized in Accumulated Other Comprehensive Income in the Capital section of the balance sheet until they mature or are sold. All other financial assets or liabilities are carried at amortized cost or at face value.
  • The Bank’s revenue will vary over time in response to future movements in interest rates. These variations would not affect the ability of the Bank to fulfill its obligations since its revenues greatly exceed its expenses.
  • The figures below show the effect at December 31, 2010, of an (increase)/decrease of 25 basis points in interest rates on the fair value of the treasury bill portfolio and other comprehensive income.

    2010

    2009

    Treasury bills of Canada

    $(21.3) / 20.0

    $(11.4) / 10.3


  • The Bank’s exposure to interest rate risk in the form of fluctuations in future cash flows of existing financial instruments is limited to Government of Canada deposits and cash and foreign deposits, since these instruments are subject to variable interest rates. The remainder of the Bank’s financial assets and liabilities either have fixed interest rates or are non-interest-bearing.
  • The figures below show the effect in 2010 of an increase/ (decrease) of 25 basis points in interest rates on the interest expenses paid on Government of Canada deposits.

    2010

    2009

    Interest expense on
    Government of Canada deposits

    $17.8 / (17.8)

    $50.8 / (50.8)


  • For all financial instruments, except bank notes in circulation, the future cash flows of the Bank are dependent on the prevailing market rate of interest at the time of renewal.
  • The following table illustrates interest rate risk relative to future cash flows by considering the expected maturity or repricing dates of existing financial assets and liabilities.

As at December 31, 2010

Weighted-
average
interest rate %

Total

Non-
interest-
sensitive

1 business day to 1 month

FINANCIAL ASSETS

       

Cash and foreign deposits

0.13

4.7

-

4.7

Loans and receivables

       

Advances to members of the CPA

1.50

22.5

-

22.5

Securities purchased under resale agreements

1.02

2,062.4

-

2,062.4

Other receivables

 

2.1

2.1

-

Investments

       

Treasury bills of Canada

0.85

4,498.8

-

4,498.8

 

0.94

8,835.7

-

-

 

1.17

11,571.6

-

-

 

1.03

24,906.1

   

Government of Canada bonds1

9.40

212.7

-

-

 

4.08

5,226.8

-

-

 

3.41

14,683.7

-

-

 

4.74

13,427.4

-

-

 

4.08

33,550.6

   

Shares in the BIS

 

38.0

38.0

-

   

60,586.4

40.1

6,588.4

FINANCIAL LIABILITIES

       

Bank notes in circulation

 

57,874.2

57,874.2

-

Deposits

       

Government of Canada

1.13

1,869.4

-

1,869.4

Members of the CPA

1.00

47.5

-

47.5

Other deposits

       

Unclaimed balances

 

433.5

433.5

-

Other

0.81

206.4

-

206.4

Other financial liabilities

 

175.6

175.6

-

   

60,606.6

58,483.3

2,123.3

Interest rate sensitivity gap

 

(20.2)

(58,443.2)

4,465.1


1 to 3 months

3 to 12 months

1 to 5 years

Over 5 years

FINANCIAL ASSETS

       

Cash and foreign deposits

-

-

-

-

Loans and receivables

       

Advances to members of the CPA

-

-

-

-

Securities purchased under resale agreements

-

-

-

-

Other receivables

-

-

-

-

Investments

       

Treasury bills of Canada

-

-

-

-

 

8,835.7

-

-

-

 

-

11,571.6

-

-

Government of Canada bonds1

212.7

-

-

-

 

-

5,226.8

-

-

 

-

-

14,683.7

-

 

-

-

-

13,427.4

Shares in the BIS

-

-

-

-

 

9,048.4

16,798.4

14,683.7

13,427.4

FINANCIAL LIABILITIES

       

Bank notes in circulation

-

-

-

-

Deposits

       

Government of Canada

-

-

-

-

Members of the CPA

-

-

-

-

Other deposits

       

Unclaimed balances

-

-

-

-

Other

-

-

-

-

Other financial liabilities

-

-

-

-

 

-

-

-

-

Interest rate sensitivity gap

9,048.4

16,798.4

14,683.7

13,427.4

1 Carrying amounts of Government of Canada bonds include accrued interest.

As at December 31, 2009

Weighted-average
interest
rate %

Total

Noninterest-sensitive

1 business
day to
1 month

FINANCIAL ASSETS

       

Cash and foreign deposits

0.09

20.4

-

20.4

Loans and receivables

       

Securities purchased under resale agreements

0.27

3,141.8

-

3,141.8

 

0.27

4,003.2

-

-

 

0.38

18,229.8

-

-

   

25,374.8

   

Other receivables

 

2.2

2.2

-

Investments

       

Treasury bills of Canada

0.51

1,999.9

-

1,999.9

 

0.41

4,548.8

-

-

 

0.48

7,135.3

-

-

 

0.46

13,684.0

   

Government of Canada bonds1

9.77

26.1

-

-

 

4.57

4,319.9

-

-

 

4.02

14,746.1

-

-

 

4.85

12,894.1

-

-

 

4.43

31,986.2

   

Shares in the BIS

 

38.0

38.0

-

   

71,105.6

40.2

5,162.1

FINANCIAL LIABILITIES

       

Bank notes in circulation

 

55,467.9

55,467.9

-

Deposits

       

Government of Canada

0.34

11,847.6

-

11,847.6

Members of the CPA

0.25

2,999.6

-

2,999.6

Other deposits

       

Unclaimed balances

 

395.5

395.5

-

Other

0.05

307.5

-

307.5

Other financial liabilities

 

61.7

61.7

-

   

71,079.8

55,925.1

15,154.7

Interest rate sensitivity gap

 

25.8

(55,884.9)

(9,992.6)


1 to 3
months

3 to 12
months

1 to 5 years

Over 5 years

FINANCIAL ASSETS

       

Cash and foreign deposits

-

-

-

-

Loans and receivables

       

Securities purchased under resale agreements

-

-

-

-

 

4,003.2

-

-

-

 

-

18,229.8

-

-

Other receivables

-

-

-

-

Investments

       

Treasury bills of Canada

-

-

-

-

 

4,548.8

-

-

-

 

-

7,135.3

-

-

Government of Canada bonds1

26.1

-

-

-

 

-

4,319.9

-

-

 

-

-

14,746.1

-

 

-

-

-

12,894.1

Shares in the BIS

-

-

-

-

 

8,578.1

29,685.0

14,746.1

12,894.1

FINANCIAL LIABILITIES

       

Bank notes in circulation

-

-

-

-

Deposits

       

Government of Canada

-

-

-

-

Members of the CPA

-

-

-

-

Other deposits

       

Unclaimed balances

-

-

-

-

Other

-

-

-

-

Other financial liabilities

-

-

-

-

 

-

-

-

-

Interest rate sensitivity gap

8,578.1

29,685.0

14,746.1

12,894.1

1 Carrying amounts of Government of Canada bonds include accrued interest.

  • Currency risk
  • Currency risk is the risk that the fair value or future cash flows of a financial instrument will fluctuate because of changes in foreign exchange rates.
  • Consistent with 2009, at December 31, 2010, the Bank did not hold a significant amount of U.S. dollars. Given the small size of the net foreign currency exposure relative to the total assets of the Bank, currency risk is not considered material.
  • Other price risk
  • Other price risk is the risk that the fair value or future cash flows of a financial instrument will fluctuate because of changes in market prices (other than those arising from changes in interest and exchange rates), whether those changes are caused by factors specific to the individual financial instrument or its issuer, or factors affecting all similar financial instruments traded in the market. The Bank is not exposed to significant other price risk.
  • (c) Liquidity risk
  • Liquidity risk is the risk that an entity will encounter difficulty in meeting obligations associated with financial liabilities that are settled by delivering cash or another financial asset. As shown in the following table, the Bank’s largest liability is Bank notes in circulation. As a counterpart to this non-interest-bearing liability with no fixed maturity, the Bank holds a portfolio of highly liquid, interest-bearing securities. In the event of an unexpected redemption of bank notes, the Bank has the ability to settle the obligation by selling its assets.
  • As the nation’s central bank, the Bank is the ultimate source of liquid funds to the Canadian financial system, and has the power and operational ability to create Canadian-dollar liquidity in unlimited amounts at any time. This power is exercised within the Bank’s commitment to keep inflation low, stable, and predictable.
  • The following table presents a maturity analysis of the Bank’s financial assets and liabilities. The balances in this table do not correspond to the balances in the Balance Sheet, since the table presents all cash flows on an undiscounted basis.

As at December 31, 2010

Total

No fixed maturity

1 business day

1 business day to 1 month

FINANCIAL ASSETS

       

Cash and foreign deposits

4.7

4.7

-

-

Loans and receivables

       

Advances to members of the CPA

22.5

-

22.5

-

Securities purchased under resale agreements

2,062.9

-

-

2,062.9

Other receivables

2.1

-

-

2.1

Investments

       

Treasury bills of Canada

25,000.0

-

-

4,500.0

Government of Canada bonds1

33,072.1

-

-

-

Shares in the BIS

38.0

38.0

-

-

 

60,202.3

42.7

22.5

6,565.0

FINANCIAL LIABILITIES

       

Bank notes in circulation

57,874.2

57,874.2

-

-

Deposits

       

Government of Canada

1,869.4

1,869.4

-

-

Members of the CPA

47.5

-

47.5

-

Other deposits

       

Unclaimed balances

433.5

433.5

-

-

Other

206.4

206.4

-

-

Other liabilities

175.6

-

-

175.6

 

60,606.6

60,383.5

47.5

175.6

Net maturity difference

(404.3)

(60,340.8)

(25.0)

6,389.4


1 to 3 months

3 to 12 months

1 to 5 years

Over 5 years

FINANCIAL ASSETS

       

Cash and foreign deposits

-

-

-

-

Loans and receivables

       

Advances to members of the CPA

-

-

-

-

Securities purchased under resale agreements

-

-

-

-

Other receivables

-

-

-

-

Investments

       

Treasury bills of Canada

8,850.0

11,650.0

-

-

Government of Canada bonds1

206.6

5,200.9

14,585.8

13,078.8

Shares in the BIS

-

-

-

-

 

9,056.6

16,850.9

14,585.8

13,078.8

FINANCIAL LIABILITIES

       

Bank notes in circulation

-

-

-

-

Deposits

       

Government of Canada

-

-

-

-

Members of the CPA

-

-

-

-

Other deposits

       

Unclaimed balances

-

-

-

-

Other

-

-

-

-

Other liabilities

-

-

-

-

 

-

-

-

-

Net maturity difference

9,056.6

16,850.9

14,585.8

13,078.8

1 Interest payments on Government of Canada bonds are classified according to their coupon date.

  • In cases where counterparties to securities purchased under resale agreements substitute collateral after the outset of an agreement, portions of the carrying values presented may mature earlier than as presented, where the amount maturing early is dependent on the value of the collateral being substituted. Where collateral has been substituted, agreements are typically re-established under the same terms and conditions. The information presented in the above table is prepared according to agreements currently in place.
  • Liabilities with no fixed maturity include Bank notes in circulation and Government of Canada Deposits. Historical experience has shown that bank notes in circulation provide a stable source of long-term funding for the Bank. Government of Canada Deposits are deposits held in the Bank’s capacity as the Government of Canada’s fiscal agent.

As at December 31, 2009

Total

No fixed maturity

1 business day

1 business day to 1 month

FINANCIAL ASSETS

       

Cash and foreign deposits

20.4

20.4

-

-

Loans and receivables

       

Securities purchased under resale agreements

25,406.4

-

-

3,142.1

Other receivables

2.2

-

-

2.2

Investments

       

Treasury bills of Canada

13,700.0

-

-

2,000.0

Government of Canada bonds1

43,761.9

-

-

-

Shares in the BIS

38.0

38.0

-

-

 

82,928.9

58.4

-

5,144.3

FINANCIAL LIABILITIES

       

Bank notes in circulation

55,467.9

55,467.9

-

-

Deposits

       

Government of Canada2

11,847.6

11,847.6

-

-

Members of the CPA

2,999.6

-

2,999.6

-

Other deposits

       

Unclaimed balances

395.5

395.5

-

-

Other

307.5

307.5

-

-

Other liabilities

61.7

-

-

61.7

 

71,079.8

68,018.5

2,999.6

61.7

Net maturity difference

11,849.1

(67,960.1)

(2,999.6)

5,082.6


1 to 3 months

3 to 12 months

1 to 5 years

Over 5 years

FINANCIAL ASSETS

       

Cash and foreign deposits

-

-

-

-

Loans and receivables

       

Securities purchased under resale agreements

4,005.0

18,259.3

-

-

Other receivables

-

-

-

-

Investments

       

Treasury bills of Canada

4,550.0

7,150.0

-

-

Government of Canada bonds1

100.1

5,583.2

18,250.2

19,828.4

Shares in the BIS

-

-

-

-

 

8,655.1

30,992.5

18,250.2

19,828.4

FINANCIAL LIABILITIES

       

Bank notes in circulation

-

-

-

-

Deposits

       

Government of Canada2

-

-

-

-

Members of the CPA

-

-

-

-

Other deposits

       

Unclaimed balances

-

-

-

-

Other

-

-

-

-

Other liabilities

-

-

-

-

 

-

-

-

-

Net maturity difference

8,655.1

30,992.5

18,250.2

19,828.4

1 Interest payments on Government of Canada bonds are classified according to their coupon date.

2 Included in these deposits were funds deposited with the Bank to support the provision of exceptional liquidity to the Canadian financial system.

7. Property and equipment

December 31, 2010 December 31, 2009

Cost

Accumu-
lated
amorti-
zation

Net book value

Cost

Accumu-
lated
amorti-
zation

Net book value

Tangible

           

Land and buildings

201.3

119.6

81.7

195.1

112.4

82.7

Computer hardware

20.6

13.9

6.7

26.1

16.1

10.0

Other equipment

121.0

98.3

22.7

126.1

99.5

26.6

Intangible

           

Computer software

44.0

33.7

10.3

49.9

37.4

12.5

 

386.9

265.5

121.4

397.2

265.4

131.8

Projects in progress

           

Tangible

12.2

-

12.2

7.5

-

7.5

Intangible

15.7

-

15.7

11.2

-

11.2

 

27.9

-

27.9

18.7

-

18.7

 

414.8

265.5

149.3

415.9

265.4

150.5

Projects in progress consist primarily of the Analytic Environment Program ($16.5 million at December 31, 2010; $14.3 million at December 31, 2009) and building renovation projects ($5.9 million at December 31, 2010; $0.6 million at December 31, 2009).

In 2010, additions to intangible assets include $2.2 million in internally developed software and $2.2 million in externally acquired computer software.

During 2010, amortization expense includes $14.3 million related to tangible assets and $2.1 million related to intangible assets.

The net carrying amount of both tangible and intangible assets is reviewed when events or changes in circumstances indicate that future benefits may no longer be reasonably assured. During the year, fully depreciated assets amounting to $16.3 million were derecognized.

8. Other assets

Other assets include the accrued pension benefit asset of $137.7 million ($83.2 million in 2009) and other items related to the administrative functions of the Bank.

9. Bank notes in circulation

In accordance with the Bank of Canada Act, the Bank has the sole authority to issue bank notes for circulation in Canada. A breakdown by denomination is presented below.

2010

2009

$5

1,038.4

1,054.8

$10

1,159.8

1,125.7

$20

16,808.2

16,463.0

$50

8,443.7

7,773.0

$100

28,964.9

27,535.6

Other bank notes

1,459.2

1,515.8

 

57,874.2

55,467.9

Other bank notes include denominations that are no longer issued but remain as legal tender. Bank notes in circulation are non-interest-bearing liabilities and have no fixed maturity.

10. Deposits

The liabilities within this category consist primarily of $2,556.8 million in Canadian-dollar demand deposits (CAN$15,550.2 million in 2009). The Bank pays interest on the deposits for the Government of Canada, banks, and other financial institutions at market-related rates.

11. Other liabilities

Other liabilities include the following:

December 31, 2010

December 31, 2009

Accrued post-retirement and post-employment benefit liabilities

148.2

138.1

Accrued transfer payment to the Receiver General for Canada

126.1

23.6

Accounts payable and accrued liabilities

49.2

37.9

Payroll liabilities

0.3

0.2

 

323.8

199.8

The accrued transfer payment to the Receiver General for Canada is included in the $1,151.1 million transfer to the Receiver General for the year presented in the Statement of Changes in Capital.

12. Employee benefit plans

The Bank sponsors a number of defined-benefit plans that provide pension and other post-retirement and post-employment benefits to its eligible employees.

The pension plans provide benefits under a Registered Pension Plan and a Supplementary Pension Arrangement. The benefits are based on pensionable service and average pensionable earnings and accrue from the first day of eligible employment. The pension is indexed to reflect changes in the consumer price index on the date payments begin and each January 1, thereafter.

The Bank sponsors post-retirement health, dental, and life insurance benefits, as well as post-employment self-insured long-term disability and continuation of benefits to disabled employees. The Bank also sponsors a long-service benefit program for employees hired before January 1, 2003.

The Bank measures its accrued benefits obligations and fair value of plan assets for accounting purposes as at December 31 of each year. The most recent actuarial valuation for funding purposes of the Registered Pension Plan was done as of January 1, 2010, and the next required valuation will be as of January 1, 2011.

Information about the employee benefit plans is presented in the tables below.

Plan assets, benefit obligation, and plan status

Pension
benefit plans1

Other benefit plans

2010

2009

2010

2009

Plan assets

Fair value of plan assets at beginning of year

934.8

792.4

-

-

Bank contributions

64.2

51.3

-

-

Employee contributions

9.2

8.0

-

-

Benefit payments and transfers

(39.4)

(35.3)

-

-

Actual return (loss) on plan assets

113.0

118.4

-

-

Fair value of plan assets2

1,081.8

934.8

-

-

Benefit obligation

Benefit obligation at beginning of year

1,073.8

1,132.9

177.4

182.3

Current service cost

32.3

35.0

7.5

8.1

Employee contributions

9.3

8.0

-

-

Interest cost

48.7

45.5

7.4

6.5

Benefit payments and transfers

(39.4)

(35.3)

(8.6)

(6.7)

Actuarial (gain) loss

205.6

(112.3)

13.5

(12.8)

Benefit obligation

1,330.3

1,073.8

197.2

177.4

Plan status

Deficiency of fair value of plan assets over benefit obligation at year-end

(248.5)

(139.0)

(197.2)

(177.4)

Unamortized net transitional obligation (asset)

(12.9)

(25.9)

8.9

11.4

Unamortized cost of amendments

8.0

10.3

-

-

Unamortized net actuarial loss

391.1

237.8

40.1

27.9

Accrued benefit asset (liability)

137.7

83.2

(148.2)

(138.1)

1 For the Supplementary Pension Arrangement, in which the accrued benefit obligation exceeds plan assets, the accrued benefit obligation and fair value of plan assets totalled $86.3 million ($67.3 million in 2009) and $56.6 million ($50.9 million in 2009), respectively.

2 The assets of the pension benefit plans were composed as follows: 56% equities; 26% bonds; 6% real return Government of Canada bonds; 3% other real return investments; 4% real estate assets; and 5% short-term securities and cash (56%, 26%, 8%, 1%, 4%, and 5%, respectively, in 2009).

The accrued benefit asset for the defined-benefit pension plans is included in the balance sheet category, Other ass ets. The accrued benefit liability for the other benefits plans is included in the balance sheet category, Other liabilities.

Benefit plan expense

Pension benefit plans

Other benefit plans

2010

2009

2010

2009

Current service cost, net of employee contributions

32.3

35.0

7.5

8.1

Interest cost

48.7

45.5

7.4

6.5

Actual (return) loss on plan assets

(113.0)

(118.4)

-

-

Actuarial loss

205.6

(112.3)

13.5

(12.8)

Benefit plan expense (income), before adjustments to recognize the long-term nature of employee future benefit costs

173.6

(150.2)

28.4

1.8

Adjustments

Difference between expected return and actual return on plan assets for the year

47.8

56.9

-

-

Difference between amortization of past service costs for the year and actual cost of plan amendments for the year

2.3

2.3

-

-

Difference between amortization of actuarial loss for the year and actuarial loss on accrued benefit obligation for the year

(201.1)

125.2

(12.2)

15.3

Amortization of transitional obligation (asset)

(12.9)

(12.9)

2.5

2.5

Benefit plan expense recognized

9.7

21.3

18.7

19.6

Significant assumptions

The significant assumptions used are as follows (on a weighted-average basis).

Pension benefit plans

Other benefit plans

2010

2009

2010

2009

Accrued benefit obligation
as at December 31

Discount rate

3.50%

4.50%

3.50%

4.10%

Rate of compensation increase

3.50%

3.50%

3.50%

3.50%

 

+ merit

+ merit

+ merit

+ merit

Benefit plan expense for year
ended December 31

Discount rate

4.50%

4.00%

4.10%

3.50%

Expected rate of return on assets

6.50%

6.50%

-

-

Rate of compensation increase

3.50%

3.50%

3.50%

3.50%

 

+ merit

+ merit

+ merit

+ merit

Assumed health-care cost trend

Initial health-care cost trend rate

   

6.75%

7.00%

Health-care cost trend rate declines to

   

4.50%

4.50%

Year that the rate reaches the ultimate trend rate

   

2029

2029

2010 sensitivity of key assumptions (Millions of dollars)

Change in obligation

Change in expense

Impact of a 25 basis point
increase/decrease in assumptions

Pension benefit plans

Change in discount rate

(58.9) / 63.2

(5.9) / 6.3

Change in long-term return on plan assets

n.a. / n.a.

(2.5) / 2.5

Other benefit plans

Change in discount rate

(7.8) / 8.3

(0.2) / 0.2

Impact of a 100 basis point
increase/decrease in assumptions

Other benefit plans

Change in the assumed health-care cost trend rates

34.0 / (25.8)

2.6 / (1.9)

The total cash payment from the Bank for employee future benefits for 2010 was $72.8 million ($58.0 million in 2009), consisting of $64.2 million ($51.3 million in 2009) in cash contributed by the Bank to its pension plans and $8.6 million ($6.7 million in 2009) in cash payments directly to beneficiaries for its unfunded other benefits plans.

Regulations governing federally regulated pension plans establish certain solvency requirements that assume that the plans are wound up at the valuation date. The actuarial valuation of the Registered Pension Plan completed at January 1, 2010, reported a solvency deficit of $122.0 million. The Bank is contributing an amount sufficient to fund this solvency deficit over a period of five years. In 2010, $34.6 million of the employer contributions to the plan reflect solvency deficit payments. Contributions will be based on the actuarial valuation as at January 1, 2011, and are estimated to be $20 million. The amount of contributions in future years is dependent on the investment experience of plan assets, as well as the discount rate used to value liabilities for solvency purposes.

13. Capital

The Bank’s objective in managing its capital, the elements of which are outlined in the table below, is compliance with the externally imposed capital requirements of the Bank of Canada Act. The Bank is not in violation of any externally imposed capital requirements at the end of the reporting period. The Bank’s objectives in managing its capital have not changed from 2009.

December 31,
2010

December 31,
2009

Share capital

5.0

5.0

Statutory reserve

25.0

25.0

Special reserve

100.0

100.0

Retained earnings

1.7

-

Accumulated other comprehensive income

(1.7)

6.8

 

130.0

136.8

Share capital

The authorized capital of the Bank is $5.0 million divided into 100 000 shares with a par value of $50 each. The shares are fully paid and have been issued to the Minister of Finance, who is holding them on behalf of the Government of Canada.

Statutory reserve

The statutory reserve was accumulated out of net income until it reached the stipulated maximum amount of $25.0 million in 1955.

Special reserve

The special reserve was created in 2007 further to an amendment to the Bank of Canada Act to offset potential unrealized valuation losses due to changes in the fair value of the Bank’s available-for-sale portfolio. The amount held in the special reserve is reviewed regularly for appropriateness using Value-at-Risk analysis and scenario-based stress tests and may be amended, pursuant to a resolution passed by the Board of Directors. The Value-at-Risk analysis uses historical data to estimate the maximum possible extent of unrealized valuation losses on the Bank’s treasury bill portfolio. The scenario-based stress tests assess the impact of a rapid increase in interest rates on the value of the Bank’s treasury bill portfolio. This reserve is subject to a ceiling of $400 million; an initial amount of $100 million was established in September 2007.

Retained earnings

The net income of the Bank, less any allocation to reserves, is considered to be ascertained surplus and is transferred to the Receiver General for Canada, consistent with the requirements of section 27 of the Bank of Canada Act. Prior to 2010, the Bank did not hold retained earnings. Effective January 1, 2010, based on an agreement signed with the Minister of Finance, the Bank will deduct from its remittances to the Receiver General and hold within retained earnings an amount equal to unrealized losses on available-for-sale assets.

Accumulated other comprehensive income

Accumulated other comprehensive income records and tracks unrealized valuation gains and losses on the Bank’s available-for-sale portfolio, excluding BIS shares, which are recorded at cost.

14. Expense by class of expenditure

2010

2009

Staff costs

179.3

175.2

Bank note research, production, and processing

53.7

56.6

Premises maintenance

28.8

26.2

Amortization

16.4

15.7

Other operating expenses

112.3

103.3

 

390.5

377.0

In 2010, the Bank has recognized employee severance expenses in connection with two restructuring initiatives. The Bank has commenced implementation of a program to achieve greater operational efficiency and effectiveness which will also result in a reduction in the number of corporate administration employees in 2011. The Bank will sell its Optical Security Material operations and all of its related assets in 2011. In relation to the two restructurings, an expense of $11 million for employee severance costs has been recognized in Staff costs and is accrued in Other liabilities.

15. Commitments, contingencies and guarantees

  • (a) Operations

  • The Bank has a long-term contract with an outside service provider for retail debt services, which expires in 2021. At December 31, 2010, fixed payments totalling $228.9 million remained, plus a variable component based on the volume of transactions.
  • In 2010, the Bank entered into a long-term agreement with an outside service provider for data centre services which commences in 2013 and expires in 2022. Fixed payments over the term of the agreement totalling $17.6 million will begin on January 1, 2013.
  • The Bank occupies leased premises in Halifax, Montréal, Toronto, Calgary and Vancouver. At December 31, 2010, the future minimum payments are $7.6 million for rent, real estate taxes and building operations. The expiry dates vary for each lease, from March 2011 to October 2020.

Minimum annual payments for long-term commitments

Outsourced services

Leased space

Total

2011

20.3

1.4

21.7

2012

20.3

1.3

21.6

2013

22.1

1.0

23.1

2014

22.1

0.9

23.0

2015

22.1

0.7

22.8

Thereafter

139.6

2.3

141.9

 

246.5

7.6

254.1

  • (b) Foreign currency contracts
  • The Bank is a counterparty to several foreign currency swap facilities as follows:

Maximum available

Contracts denominated in U.S. dollars

Federal Reserve Bank of New York

30,000.0

Federal Reserve Bank of New York

2,000.0

 

32,000.0

Contracts denominated in Canadian dollars

Banco de México

1,000.0

  • The US$30 billion facility with the Federal Reserve Bank of New York, which expired on February 1, 2010, was re-established on May 17, 2010, with an expiration date of August 1, 2011. The other facilities have indefinite terms and are subject to annual renewal.
  • The Bank is also party to a standing foreign currency swap facility with the Exchange Fund Account of Canada. There is no stated maximum amount under this agreement.
  • These swap facilities were not used in 2010 or 2009 and, therefore, there were no related commitments at December 31, 2010.
  • (c) Contingency
  • The 9 441 shares in the BIS have a nominal value of 5 000 special drawing rights (SDRs) per share, of which 25%, i.e. SDR1,250, is paid up. The balance of SDR3,750 is callable at three months’ notice by decision of the BIS Board of Directors. The Canadian equivalent of this contingent liability was $54.6 million at December 31, 2010, based on prevailing exchange rates.
  • (d) Guarantees
  • In the normal course of operations, the Bank enters into certain guarantees, which are described below.
  • Large Value Transfer System (LVTS) Guarantee
  • The LVTS is a large-value payment system, owned and operated by the CPA. Any deposit-taking financial institution that is a member of the CPA can participate in the LVTS, provided that it maintains a settlement account at the Bank, has the facilities to pledge collateral for LVTS purposes, and meets certain technical requirements. The system’s risk-control features, which include caps on net debit positions and collateral to secure the use of overdraft credit, are sufficient to permit the system to obtain the necessary liquidity to settle in the event of the failure of the single LVTS participant having the largest possible net amount owing. The Bank guarantees to provide this liquidity, and in the event of the single participant failure, the liquidity loan will be fully collateralized. In the extremely unlikely event that there were defaults by more than one participant during the LVTS operating day, in an aggregate amount in excess of the largest possible net amount owing by a single participant, there would not likely be enough collateral to secure the amount of liquidity that the Bank would need to provide to settle the system. This might result in the Bank having unsecured claims on the defaulting participants in excess of the amount of collateral pledged to the Bank to cover the liquidity loans. The Bank would have the right, as an unsecured creditor, to recover any amount of its liquidity loan that was unpaid. The amount potentially at risk under this guarantee is not determinable, since the guarantee would be called upon only if a series of extremely low-probability events were to occur. No amount has ever been provided for in the liabilities of the Bank, and no amount has ever been paid under this guarantee.
  • Other indemnification agreements
  • In the normal course of operations, the Bank provides indemnification agreements with various counterparties in transactions such as service agreements, software licences, leases and purchases of goods. Under these agreements, the Bank agrees to indemnify the counterparty against loss or liability arising from acts or omissions of the Bank in relation to the agreement. The nature of the indemnification agreements prevents the Bank from making a reasonable estimate of the maximum potential amount that the Bank would be required to pay such counterparties.
  • (e) Insurance
  • The Bank does not insure against direct risks of loss to the Bank, except for potential liabilities to third parties and where there are legal or contractual obligations to carry insurance. Any costs arising from risks not insured are recorded in the accounts at the time they can be reasonably estimated.

16. Related-party transactions

The Bank is related in terms of common ownership to all Government of Canada departments, agencies and Crown corporations. To achieve its monetary policy objectives, the Bank maintains a position of structural and functional independence from the Government of Canada through its ability to fund its own operations without external assistance and through its management and governance structures.

All related-party transactions are recorded at their exchange amounts, which is the amount of consideration established and agreed upon by the related parties. Related-party transactions with the Government of Canada are disclosed as part of the financial statements or the relevant notes.

17. Comparative figures

Comparative figures have been reclassified where necessary to conform to the presentation adopted for the current year.

[25-1-o]

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to section 127 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, Disposal at Sea Permit No. 4543-2-03531 authorizing the loading for disposal and the disposal of waste or other matter at sea is approved.

1. Permittee: Tyam Excavation and Shoring Ltd., Surrey, British Columbia.

2. Waste or other matter to be disposed of: Inert, inorganic geological matter.

2.1. Nature of waste or other matter: Inert, inorganic geological matter; all wood, topsoil, asphalt and other debris is to be segregated for disposal by methods other than disposal at sea.

3. Duration of permit: Permit is valid from July 18, 2011, to July 17, 2012.

4. Loading site(s):

  • (a) Various approved excavation sites in the cities of Vancouver, Burnaby, North Vancouver, West Vancouver, Surrey, New Westminster, Coquitlam and Port Coquitlam, British Columbia, along with various approved sites in Howe Sound, British Columbia, as identified in the process outlined in the document titled “Multi-Site Excavation Projects involving Disposal at Sea: Requests for Letters of Approval — Standard Procedures” (February 2011);
  • (b) Out-loading facility in North Vancouver, British Columbia, at approximately 49°17.22′ N, 123°04.83′ W (NAD83);
  • (c) Out-loading facility in Vancouver, British Columbia, at approximately 49°17.90′ N, 123°01.03′ W (NAD83);
  • (d) Out-loading facility on the Fraser River, near Coquitlam, British Columbia, at approximately 49°12.07′ N, 123°08.44′ W (NAD83);
  • (e) Out-loading facility on the Fraser River, near Port Coquitlam, British Columbia, at approximately 49°13.29′ N, 122°49.85′ W (NAD83); and
  • (f) Out-loading facility in Howe Sound, near Squamish, British Columbia, at approximately 49°41.01′ N, 123°09.84′ W (NAD83).

5. Disposal site(s):

  • (a) Point Grey Disposal Site, within a one nautical mile radius of 49°15.40′ N, 123°21.90′ W (NAD83); and
  • (b) Watts Point Disposal Site, within a 0.25 nautical mile radius of 49°38.50′ N, 123°14.10′ W (NAD83).

6. Method of loading: Loading will be carried out using land-based heavy equipment, trucks, or conveyor belts.

7. Route to disposal site(s) and method of transport: Most direct navigational route from the loading site to the disposal site via hopper scow or towed scow.

8. Method of disposal: Disposal will be carried out by bottom dumping or end dumping.

9. Total quantity to be disposed of: Not to exceed 100 000 m3.

10. Approvals: The Permittee shall obtain from the permit-issuing office a letter of approval for each loading and disposal activity prior to undertaking the work, and conduct these activities in accordance with the relevant letter of approval.

11. Fees: The fee prescribed by the Disposal at Sea Permit Fee Regulations shall be paid by the Permittee in accordance with those Regulations.

12. Inspection:

12.1. By accepting this permit, the Permittee and their contractors accept that they are subject to inspection pursuant to Part 10 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999.

12.2. The Permittee shall ensure that records of all loading and disposal activities are kept on site for the duration of the permit and are available for inspection by any enforcement officer or analyst, for two years following the expiry of the permit.

12.3. Ships operating under the authority of this permit shall carry and display a radar-reflecting device at all times mounted on the highest practical location.

13. Contractors:

13.1. The loading or disposal at sea referred to under this permit shall not be carried out by any person without written authorization from the Permittee.

13.2. The Permittee shall ensure that all persons involved in the loading, transport or disposal activities authorized by this permit conduct these activities in accordance with the relevant permit conditions.

14. Reporting and notification:

14.1. The Permittee shall provide the following information at least 48 hours before loading and disposal activities commence: name or number of ship, platform or structure used to carry out the loading and/or disposal, name of the contractor including corporate and on-site contact information, and expected period of loading and disposal activities. The above-noted information shall be submitted to Environment Canada’s Environmental Enforcement Division, Pacific and Yukon Region, 604-666-9059 (fax) or das.pyr@ec.gc.ca (email).

14.2. The Permittee shall submit a written report to the Minister, as represented by the Regional Director of the Environmental Protection Operations Directorate, Pacific and Yukon Region, 201–401 Burrard Street, Vancouver, British Columbia V6C 3S5, 604-666-5928 (fax) or das.pyr@ec.gc.ca (email) within 30 days of either the completion of the work or the expiry of the permit, whichever comes first. This report shall contain the following information: a list of all work completed pursuant to the permit, including the names of the loading and disposal sites used, the quantity of matter disposed of at the disposal site(s), and the dates on which disposal activities occurred.

14.3. At all times, a copy of this permit and of documents and drawings referenced in this permit shall be available at the loading site and on all powered ships directly engaged in the loading and disposal operations.

15. Special precautions:

15.1. The loading and disposal at sea referred to under this permit shall be carried out in accordance with the mitigation measures and procedures summarized in the document titled “Environmental Assessment Report: Tyam Excavation and Shoring Ltd. — Loading and Disposal at Sea 4543-2-03531” and the associated document titled “Multi-Site Excavation Projects involving Disposal at Sea: Requests for Letters of Approval — Standard Procedures” (February 2011).

DANIEL WOLFISH
Regional Director
Environmental Protection Operations Directorate
Pacific and Yukon Region
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment

[25-1-o]

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Publication after screening assessment of 545 substances specified on the Domestic Substances List (subsection 77(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)

Whereas the 545 substances are substances on the Domestic Substances List identified under subsection 73(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999;

Whereas a summary of the updated draft Screening Assessment conducted on the substances pursuant to section 74 of the Act, is annexed hereby; and

Whereas it is proposed to conclude that these substances do not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of the Act,

Notice therefore is hereby given that the Ministers of the Environment and of Health propose to take no further action in respect of the substances at this time under section 77 of the Act.

Public comment period

As specified under subsection 77(5) of the CanadianEnvironmental Protection Act, 1999, any person may, within 60 days after publication of this notice, file with the Minister of the Environment written comments on the measure the Ministers propose to take and on the scientific considerations on the basis of which the measure is proposed. More information regarding the scientific considerations may be obtained from the Government of Canada’s Chemical Substances Web site (www. chemicalsubstances.gc.ca). All comments must cite the Canada Gazette, Part I, and the date of publication of this notice and be sent to the Executive Director, Program Development and Engagement Division, Gatineau, Quebec K1A 0H3, 819-953-7155 (fax), substances@ec.gc.ca (email).

GEORGE ENEI
Director General
Science and Risk Assessment Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment
KAREN LLOYD
Director General
Safe Environments Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of Health

ANNEX

Summary of the updated draft screening assessment of the 545 substances listed below

CAS RN*

Domestic Substances List name

58-39-9

1-Piperazineethanol, 4-[3-(2-chloro-10H-phenothiazin-10yl)propyl]-

58-90-2

Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro-

77-61-2

Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl-6-(1-methylcyclohexyl)-

88-27-7

Phenol, 4-[(dimethylamino)methyl]-2,6-bis(1,1-dimethylethyl)-

89-75-8

Benzoyl chloride, 2,4-dichloro-

89-88-3

6-Azulenol, 1,2,3,3a,4,5,6,8a-octahydro-4,8-dimethyl-2(1-methylethylidene)-

92-66-0

1,1′-Biphenyl, 4-bromo-

92-78-4

2-Naphthalenecarboxamide, N-(4-chlorophenyl)-3-hydroxy-

98-05-5

Arsonic acid, phenyl-

100-39-0

Benzene, (bromomethyl)-

117-97-5

Benzenethiol, pentachloro-, zinc salt

125-20-2

1(3H)-Isobenzofuranone, 3,3-bis[4-hydroxy-2-methyl-5(1-methylethyl)phenyl]-

127-36-6

1-Phenanthrenemethanol, 1,2,3,4,4a,4b,5,6,7,9,10,10a-dodecahydro-1,4a-dimethyl-7-(1-methylethyl)-

128-85-8

9,10-Anthracenedione, 1-(methylamino)4-[(4-methylphenyl)amino]-

132-68-3

2-Naphthalenecarboxamide, 3-hydroxy-N-1-naphthalenyl-

135-65-9

2-Naphthalenecarboxamide, 3-hydroxy-N-(3-nitrophenyl)-

137-52-0

2-Naphthalenecarboxamide, N-(5-chloro-2-methoxyphenyl)3-hydroxy-

139-60-6

1,4-Benzenediamine, N,N′-bis(1-ethyl-3-methylpentyl)-

142-03-0

Aluminum, bis(acetato-O)hydroxy-

143-15-7

Dodecane, 1-bromo-

145-50-6

1(4H)-Naphthalenone, 4-[(4-hydroxy1-naphthalenyl)phenylmethylene]-

146-56-5

1-Piperazineethanol, 4-[3[2-(trifluoromethyl)-10H-phenothiazin-10-yl]propyl]-, dihydrochloride

434-13-9

Cholan-24-oic acid, 3-hydroxy-, (3α,5β)-

479-33-4

2,4-Cyclopentadien-1-one, 2,3,4,5-tetraphenyl-

504-24-5

4-Pyridinamine

504-66-5

Cyanamide, cyano-

506-65-0

Gold cyanide (Au(CN))

552-38-5

Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, monolithium salt

556-63-8

Formic acid, lithium salt

630-88-6

Spiro[isobenzofuran-1(3H),9′-[9H]xanthen]-3-one, 3′,6′-dichloro-

653-14-5

Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-3,5-diiodo-, monolithium salt

696-28-6

Arsonous dichloride, phenyl-

815-82-7

Butanedioic acid, 2,3-dihydroxy- [R-(R,R)]-, copper(2++) salt (1:1)

867-55-0

Propanoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, monolithium salt

871-27-2

Aluminum, diethylhydro-

961-11-5

Phosphoric acid, 2-chloro-1-(2,4,5-trichlorophenyl)ethenyl dimethyl ester

995-33-5

Pentanoic acid, 4,4-bis[(1,1-dimethylethyl)dioxy]-, butyl ester

1184-64-1

Carbonic acid, copper(2++) salt (1:1)

1252-44-4

Benzenecarboximidic acid, 4,4′-[1,5-pentanediylbis(oxy)]bis-, diethyl ester

1303-61-3

Gold sulfide (Au2S3)

1520-44-1

Benzene, 1,1′-(1-methyl-1,3-propanediyl)bis-

1579-40-4

Benzene, 1,1′-oxybis[4-methyl-

1586-92-1

Aluminum, ethoxydiethyl-

1633-22-3

Tricyclo[8.2.2.24,7]hexadeca-4,6,10,12,13,15-hexaene

1662-01-7

1,10-Phenanthroline, 4,7-diphenyl-

2044-56-6

Sulfuric acid, monododecyl ester, lithium salt

2185-87-7

Methanaminium, N-[4-[[4-(dimethylamino)phenyl][4-(methylphenylamino)-1-naphthalenyl]methylene]2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene]-N-methyl-, chloride

2218-80-6

Cyclohexanebutanoic acid, copper(2++) salt

2490-60-0

Quino[2,3-b]acridine-6,7,13,14(5H,12H)-tetrone, 2,9-dichloro-

2561-85-5

2,5-Furandione, 3-dodecyldihydro-

2588-24-1

Benzoic acid, 3,3′-(3H-2,1-benzoxathiol-3-ylidene)bis[6-hydroxy-5-methyl-, S,S-dioxide

2625-17-4

5H-Dibenzo[a,d]cyclohepten-5-ol, 5-[3-(dimethylamino)2-methylpropyl]-10,11-dihydro-

2814-60-0

2(3H)-Benzothiazolone, 3-ethyl-, (3-ethyl2(3H)-benzothiazolylidene)hydrazone

2868-48-6

Cholan-24-oic acid, 3,6-dihydroxy-, methyl ester, (3α,5β,6α)-

2905-61-5

Benzoyl chloride, 2,5-dichloro-

2934-07-8

Phenol, 2,4,6-tris(1-methylethyl)-

3015-66-5

1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, 3,4,5,6-tetrachloro-, dibutyl ester

3024-72-4

Benzoyl chloride, 3,4-dichloro-

3087-36-3

Ethanol, titanium(4++) salt

3760-14-3

1,5-Cyclooctadiene, 1,5-dimethyl-

3884-95-5

Phenol, 2-(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)-

3918-33-0

Cyclohexanone, 3-(5,5,6-trimethylbicyclo[2.2.1]hept-2-yl)-

3982-87-4

Phosphine sulfide, tris(2-methylpropyl)-

4180-12-5

Acetic acid, copper salt

4303-67-7

1H-Imidazole, 1-dodecyl-

4424-00-4

Silicic acid (H4SiO4), tetrakis(phenylmethyl) ester

4429-97-4

Cyclododecapyrimidine, 5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14-decahydro-

4702-64-1

9,10-Anthracenedione, 4,8-diamino-1,5-dihydroxy-2(4-methoxyphenyl)-

4733-39-5

1,10-Phenanthroline, 2,9-dimethyl-4,7-diphenyl-

4991-47-3

Hexadecanoic acid, zinc salt

5128-29-0

1-Octadecanol, titanium(4++) salt

5486-84-0

Benzenediazonium, 4-(benzoylamino)-2,5-diethoxy-, (T-4)-tetrachlorozincate(2-) (2:1)

5673-36-9

1-Phenanthrenecarboxylic acid, 7-ethyl-1,2,3,4,4a,4b,5,6,7,8,10,10a-dodecahydro1,4a,7-trimethyl-, [1R-(1α,4aβ,4bα,7α,10aα)]-

5819-01-2

Dodecane, 1,1′-selenobis-

5892-47-7

Phenol, 2,4,6-tris(1-methylpropyl)-

6370-89-4

9,10-Anthracenedione, 1-amino-4,8-dihydroxy5-(phenylamino)-

6531-45-9

Propanoic acid, lithium salt

6837-45-2

Phenazinium, 3-amino-7-(dimethylamino)5-(2,4-dimethylphenyl)-1,4-dimethyl-, chloride

6928-67-2

1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, 3,4,5,6-tetrachloro-, dipropyl ester

6994-46-3

9,10-Anthracenedione, 1,4-bis(ethylamino)-

7057-56-9

Phenoxazin-5-ium, 3,7-bis(dimethylamino)-, chloride, compd. with zinc chloride (ZnCl2)

7144-37-8

Benzenesulfonic acid, 4-methyl-, copper(2++) salt

7268-92-0

Copper, [propanedioato(2-)-O,O′]-

7440-19-9

Samarium

7440-30-4

Thulium

7440-64-4

Ytterbium

7446-18-6

Sulfuric acid, dithallium(1++) salt

7459-33-8

9,12-Octadecadienoyl chloride, (Z,Z)-

7585-14-0

Aluminum, iododioctyl-

7637-03-8

Sulfuric acid, ammonium cerium(4++) salt (4:4:1)

7782-89-0

Lithium amide (Li(NH2))

7783-56-4

Stibine, trifluoro-

7784-23-8

Aluminum iodide (AlI3)

7787-47-5

Beryllium chloride (BeCl2)

7787-60-2

Bismuthine, trichloro-

7790-69-4

Nitric acid, lithium salt

9007-39-0

Resin acids and Rosin acids, copper salts

9066-49-3

Lignosulfonic acid, aluminum salt

9075-85-8

Urea, polymer with ammonium chloride ((NH4)Cl), cyanoguanidine and formaldehyde

9080-34-6

Formaldehyde, polymer with dimethylbenzene and phenol

10102-90-6

Diphosphoric acid, copper salt

10130-53-7

Benzenesulfonic acid, 2,2′-[(4,8-diamino-3,7-dibromo9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo-1,5-anthracenediyl)diimino]bis[5-methyl-, disodium salt

10138-62-2

Holmium chloride (HoCl3)

10187-52-7

Phenol, 2,2′-methylenebis[4-chloro-, monosodium salt

10214-40-1

Selenious acid, copper(2++) salt (1:1)

10294-29-8

Gold chloride (AuCl)

10377-51-2

Lithium iodide (LiI)

10489-46-0

Sulfuric acid, rhodium(3++) salt (3:2)

10534-89-1

Cobalt(3++), hexaammine-, trichloride, (OC-6-11)-

12005-16-2

Aluminate (Al5O81-), sodium

12007-60-2

Boron lithium oxide (B4Li2O7)

12060-08-1

Scandium oxide (Sc2O3)

12137-76-7

Palladium selenide (PdSe)

12400-75-8

Cuprate(1-), [sulfato(2-)-O]-

12439-78-0

Ytterbium oxide sulfide (Yb2O2S)

13040-17-0

Decanoic acid, zinc salt

13395-16-9

Copper, bis(2,4-pentanedionato-O,O′)-, (SP-4-1)-

13410-01-0

Selenic acid, disodium salt

13426-91-0

Copper(2++), bis(1,2-ethanediamine-N,N′)-

13454-94-9

Sulfuric acid, cerium(3++) salt (3:2)

13454-96-1

Platinum chloride (PtCl4), (SP-4-1)-

13590-82-4

Sulfuric acid, cerium(4++) salt (2:1)

13715-19-0

Cuprate(1-), bis(cyano-C)-, sodium

13718-26-8

Vanadate (VO31-), sodium

13721-39-6

Vanadate (VO43-), trisodium, (T-4)-

13746-56-0

Phenol, 2-methoxy-4-(1,7,7-trimethylbicyclo[2.2.1]hept-2-yl)-, exo-

13746-98-0

Nitric acid, thallium(3++) salt

13769-43-2

Vanadate (VO31-), potassium

13813-19-9

Sulfuric acid-d2

13814-87-4

Sulfuric acid, ammonium zinc salt (2:2:1)

13963-57-0

Aluminum, tris(2,4-pentanedionato-O,O′)-, (OC-6-11)-

14054-87-6

Europium, tris[4,4,4-trifluoro-1-(2-thienyl)-1,3-butanedionato-O,O′]-

14128-84-8

Copper, bis(1-phenyl-1,3-butanedionato-O,O′)-

14217-21-1

Ferrate(3-), hexakis(cyano-C)-, trisodium, (OC-6-11)-

14239-23-7

Benzenediazonium, 2,5-dichloro-, (T-4)-tetrachlorozincate(2-) (2:1)

14239-24-8

Benzenediazonium, 4-methoxy-2-nitro-, (T-4)-tetrachlorozincate(2-) (2:1)

14264-31-4

Cuprate(2-), tris(cyano-C)-, disodium

14402-89-2

Ferrate(2-), pentakis(cyano-C)nitrosyl-, disodium, (OC-6-22)-

14481-26-6

Titanate(2-), bis[ethanedioato(2-)-O,O′]oxo-, dipotassium, (SP-5-21)-

14552-19-3

Europium, tris(4,4,4-trifluoro-1-phenyl-1,3-butanedionato-O,O′)-

14696-66-3

Diphosphoric acid, aluminum salt (3:4)

14840-89-2

13-Oxabicyclo[10.1.0]trideca-4,8-diene, 2,6,10-trimethyl-

15189-51-2

Aurate(1-), tetrachloro-, sodium, (SP-4-1)-

15201-05-5

Zincate(2-), tetrachloro-, (T-4)-

15307-79-6

Benzeneacetic acid, 2[(2,6-dichlorophenyl)amino]-, monosodium

15443-06-8

Copper, bis(1-phenyl-1,3-pentanedionato-O,O′)-

15590-62-2

Hexanoic acid, 2-ethyl-, lithium salt

15764-04-2

2(3H)-Naphthalenone, 4,4a,5,6,7,8-hexahydro-4,4a-dimethyl-6-(1-methylethylidene)-, (4R-cis)-

15785-09-8

Cerium hydroxide (Ce(OH)3)

16009-13-5

Ferrate(2-), chloro[7,12-diethenyl-3,8,13,17-tetramethyl-21H,23H-porphine-2,18-dipropanoato(4-)-N21,N22,N23,N24]-, dihydrogen, (SP-5-13)-

17084-40-1

Copper, bis[2-[(cyclohexylimino)methyl]phenolato-N,O]-

17362-05-9

9,10-Anthracenedione, 1-amino-4-(cyclohexylamino)-2-[(2-hydroxyethyl)thio]-

17735-99-8

Cyclohexanol, 2-methoxy-6-(2,3,3-trimethylbicyclo[2.2.1]hept-2-yl)-

18039-18-4

Benzoic acid, 4-[2-[4-(5-methyl-2-benzoxazolyl)phenyl]ethenyl]-, methyl ester

18390-55-1

Phenol, 2,4,6-trinitro-, lithium salt

19407-37-5

1-Phenanthrenecarboxylic acid, 1,2,3,4,4a,4b,5,6,7,9,10,10a-dodecahydro-1,4a-dimethyl-7-(1-methylethyl)-, [1R-(1α,4aβ,4bα,7β,10aα)]-

19597-69-4

Lithium azide (Li(N3))

19683-09-1

2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 7-(4-methyl-5-phenyl-2H-1,2,3-triazol-2-yl)-3-phenyl-

19814-71-2

Benzene, 1,1′-oxybis[3-methyl-

19878-87-6

Aluminum, tris(hydroxyacetato-O1,O2)-

20241-77-4

9,10-Anthracenedione, 1-amino-4,5-dihydroxy-8-(phenylamino)-

20405-64-5

Copper selenide (Cu2Se)

20611-81-8

Cyanamide, disodium salt

20816-12-0

Osmium oxide (OsO4), (T-4)-

20845-92-5

Hexanoic acid, 2-ethyl-, rhodium(3++) salt

21360-80-5

Rhodium(2++), pentaamminechloro-, (OC-6-22)-, sulfate (1:1)

21405-81-2

Copper, [3-[[(2-hydroxyphenyl)methylene]amino][1,1′-biphenyl]-4-olato(2-)-N,O,O′]-

21514-87-4

Benzoic acid, 2-(2,4,5,7-tetrabromo-6-hydroxy-3-oxo-3H-xanthen-9-yl)-, ethyl ester, sodium salt

21559-14-8

Selenium, bis(diethylcarbamodithioato-S)bis(diethylcarbamodithioato-S,S′)-

21810-29-7

9(10H)-Acridinone, 4-nitro-1-(phenylthio)-

21811-74-5

Spiro[isobenzofuran-1(3H),9′-[9H]xanthen]-3-one, ar-[(4,6-dichloro-1,3,5-triazin-2-yl)amino]-3′,6′-dihydroxy-, monohydrochloride

22373-78-0

Monensin, monosodium salt

22405-83-0

Zinc, dichloro[2,2′-dithiobis[benzothiazole]]-, (T-4)-

23110-15-8

2,4,6,8-Decatetraenedioic acid, mono[5-methoxy-4-[2-methyl-3-(3-methyl-2-butenyl)oxiranyl]-1-oxaspiro[2.5]oct-6-yl] ester, [3R-[3α,4α(2R,3R),5β,6β(all-E)]]-

23455-89-2

Benzenesulfonic acid, 3-[[[(3-heptadecyl-1,5-dihydro-5-thioxo-4H-1,2,4-triazol-4-yl)amino]carbonyl]amino]-, monosodium salt

23501-81-7

1,3-Diazetidine-2,4-dione, 1,3-bis(6-isocyanatohexyl)-

23552-76-3

9,10-Anthracenedione, 1-hydroxy-4-[(4-methoxyphenyl)amino]-

24468-28-8

1,3,5-Triazine-2,4,6(1H,3H,5H)-trione, zinc salt

24742-16-3

Benzoic acid, titanium(4++) salt

25014-13-5

1,2-Ethanediamine, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane

25086-35-5

Formaldehyde, polymer with 3,5-dimethylphenol

25191-50-8

2-Propenamide, polymer with 2-propenal

25510-41-2

29H,31H-Phthalocyanine, dilithium salt

25931-44-6

Oxirane, (chloromethyl)-, polymer with methyloxirane and oxirane

26045-14-7

Pyridinium, 2-ethenyl-1-methyl-, salt with 4-methylbenzenesulfonic acid (1:1), homopolymer

26140-67-0

1H-Pyrrole-2,5-dione, 1,1′-(methylenedi-4,1-phenylene)bis-, polymer with 4,4′-methylenebis[benzenamine]

26192-76-7

Benzoic acid, 4-[3-(4-chlorophenyl)-4,5-dihydro1H-pyrazol-1-yl]-

26248-39-5

Benzenemethanaminium, N,N-dimethyl-N-[2-[2-[methyl-4-(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)phenoxy]ethoxy]ethyl]-, hydroxide

26403-08-7

tert-Dodecanethiol, gold(1++) salt

26470-16-6

2-Propen-1-aminium, N,N-dimethyl-N-2-propenyl-, chloride, polymer with sulfur dioxide

26635-94-9

Poly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyl), α,α′-[(hexadecylimino)di-2,1-ethanediyl]bis[ω-hydroxy-

26658-42-4

1,2-Ethanediamine, N-(2-aminoethyl)-N′-[2-[(2-aminoethyl)amino]ethyl]-, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane

26864-36-8

8-Oxa-3,5-dithia-4-stibatetradecanoic acid, 10-ethyl-4-[[2-[(2-ethylhexyl)oxy]-2-oxoethyl]thio]-7-oxo-, 2-ethylhexyl ester

26936-72-1

Hexanedioic acid, polymer with hexahydro-2H-azepin-2-one, 1,6-hexanediamine and 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[cyclohexanamine]

27029-41-0

1,3-Propanediamine, N,N-dimethyl-, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane

27668-52-6

1-Octadecanaminium, N,N-dimethyl-N-[3-(trimethoxysilyl)propyl]-, chloride

27689-12-9

2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, (1-methylethylidene)bis(4,1-phenyleneoxy-3,1-propanediyl) ester

27774-13-6

Vanadium, oxo[sulfato(2-)-O]-

27968-41-8

Urea, polymer with cyanoguanidine and formaldehyde

28178-42-9

Benzene, 2-isocyanato-1,3-bis(1-methylethyl)-

28213-08-3

Phosphoric acid, polymer with cyanoguanidine, formaldehyde and 1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine

28299-41-4

Benzene, 1,1′-oxybis[methyl-

28432-94-2

Urea, polymer with N,N′-bis(2-aminoethyl)-1,2-ethanediamine and formaldehyde

28551-14-6

Oxirane, (chloromethyl)-, polymer with ammonia

28749-63-5

1(3H)-Isobenzofuranone, 3-[4-hydroxy-2-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)phenyl]-3-[2-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-4-(phosphonooxy)phenyl]-, sodium salt

28883-73-0

Poly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyl), α,α′[(octadecylimino)di-2,1-ethanediyl]bis[ω-hydroxy-, hydrochloride

29319-57-1

Phosphoric acid, isooctyl diphenyl ester

29353-68-2

[Terphenyl]-ar′-ol

29660-48-8

13-Oxabicyclo[10.1.0]trideca-4,8-diene, 1,4,8-trimethyl-

29726-21-4

Zinc, [4-methyl-1,2-benzenedithiolato(2-)-S,S′]-

30394-92-4

Formaldehyde, polymer with tetrahydro-4H-1,3,5-oxadiazin4-one

30607-77-3

Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester, compd. with aziridine homopolymer

30787-41-8

9,10-Anthracenedione, 1,5-diamino-2,6-dibromo-4,8-dihydroxy-

30982-35-5

Benzeneacetic acid, 2-(6,6-dimethylbicyclo[3.1.1]hept-2-en2-yl)ethyl ester

31114-38-2

α-D-Glucopyranoside, β-D-fructofuranosyl, polymer with formaldehyde and 1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine

31626-19-4

9,10-Anthracenedione, 1,5-diaminodibromo-4,8-dihydroxy-

31643-14-8

Benzenemethanol, α-(trichloromethyl)-, propanoate

32240-73-6

1,3-Isobenzofurandione, 5,5′-[2,2,2-trifluoro-1-(trifluoromethyl)ethylidene]bis-, polymer with 4,4′-oxybis[benzenamine]

32276-75-8

Octanoic acid, 2,2-dimethyl-, copper(2++) salt

33145-10-7

Phenol, 2,2′-(2-methylpropylidene)bis[4,6-dimethyl-

33454-82-9

Methanesulfonic acid, trifluoro-, lithium salt

34180-85-3

Benzoic acid, 4-[2-[4-(2-benzoxazolyl)phenyl]ethenyl]-, methyl ester

34378-36-4

Formaldehyde, polymer with N-methylmethanamine and phenol

34562-31-7

Pyridine, 3,5-diethyl-1,2-dihydro-1-phenyl-2-propyl-

34728-25-1

Guanidine, cyano-, polymer with ammonia and formaldehyde

34740-81-3

9,10-Anthracenedione, 1-amino-4-hydroxy-2-[4-(methylthio)phenoxy]-

34895-26-6

2-Butenedioic acid (Z)-, lithium salt

37295-33-3

Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis-, polymer with 5-amino-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexanemethanamine, α-hydro-ω-hydroxypoly[oxy(methyl-1,2-ethanediyl)] and 1,1′-methylenebis[4-isocyanatocyclohexane]

38096-68-3

Poly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyl), α,α′-[(methyloctadecyliminio)di-2,1-ethanediyl]bis[ω-hydroxy-, methyl sulfate (salt)

38294-64-3

Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis-, polymer with 5-amino-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexanemethanamine and (chloromethyl)oxirane

38582-17-1

Cyclohexanebutanoic acid, cobalt(2++) salt

38598-34-4

Aluminum, bis(cyclohexanebutanoato-O)hydroxy-

38758-04-2

Ethanone, 1-[4-(4-methyl-3-pentenyl)-3-cyclohexen-1-yl]-

40530-60-7

Carbonic acid, 2-[(1-amino-9,10-dihydro-4-hydroxy-9,10-dioxo-2-anthracenyl)oxy]ethyl ethyl ester

41175-45-5

1H,5H-Cyclopenta[3,4][1]benzopyrano[6,7,8-ij]quinolizin-12(9H)-one, 2,3,6,7,10,11-hexahydro-

41941-50-8

1,3-Propanediamine, N-(3-aminopropyl)-N-methyl-, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane

47724-48-1

Xanthylium, 9-[2-(ethoxycarbonyl)phenyl]-3,6-(ethylimino)-2,7-dimethyl-

49763-10-2

Formaldehyde, polymer with 2-aminoethanol, (chloromethyl)oxirane and 1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine

50729-75-4

1,3,5-Triazine-2,4-diamine, 6-[2-(2-undecyl-1H-imidazol1-yl)ethyl]-

51202-80-3

Phenol, 2,6-bis(1,1-dimethylethyl)methyl-

51732-68-4

Formaldehyde, polymer with butylphenol and phenol

51801-69-5

Benzene, 1-methyl-3-(4-methylphenoxy)-

51952-69-3

Ethane, 1,2-dichloro-, polymer with ammonia, compd. with chloromethane

52469-00-8

Formaldehyde, polymer with [1,1′-biphenyl]-4-ol and 4-(1,1-dimethylethyl)phenol

53026-85-0

Aluminum chlorohydrex

53350-83-7

1H-Benzimidazolium, 2-[7-(diethylamino)-2-oxo-2H-1-benzopyran-3-yl]-1,3-dimethyl-, trichlorozincate(1-)

53632-66-9

Aluminum, bis(2-ethoxyethanolato-O,O′)(ethyl 3-oxobutanoato-O1′,O3)-

53880-86-7

Thioperoxydicarbonic diamide ([(H2N)C(S)]2S2), dimethyldiphenyl-

54043-73-1

1-Cyclopentene-1-propanol, β,2-dimethyl-5-(1-methylethenyl)-, acetate

54076-97-0

Ethanaminium, N,N,N-trimethyl-2-[(1-oxo-2-propenyl)oxy]-, chloride, homopolymer

54910-07-5

Formaldehyde, polymer with 2-aminoethanol and (chloromethyl)oxirane

55066-54-1

Bicyclo[2.2.1]heptan-2-ol, 1,3,3-trimethyl-, benzoate

55154-67-1

Phenol, 2,4,5-tris(1-methylethyl)-

57055-38-6

1-Phenanthrenecarboxylic acid, chloro-1,2,3,4,4a,9,10,10a-octahydro-1,4a-dimethyl-7-(1-methylethyl)-, [1R-(1α,4aβ,10aα)]-

57138-85-9

Formaldehyde, polymer with benzenamine, hydrochloride

57629-28-4

Poly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyl), α-[2-[octadecyl(2-sulfoethyl)amino]ethyl]-ω-hydroxy-, monosodium salt

57840-38-7

Sulfonium, triphenyl-, (OC-6-11)-hexafluoroantimonate(1-)

58555-74-1

Phenol, polymer with (R)-1-methyl-4-(1-methylethenyl)cyclohexene

58569-23-6

Benzenesulfonic acid, [[4-[(4-amino-3-methylphenyl)[4-(phenylimino)-2,5-cyclohexadien1-ylidene]methyl]phenyl]amino]-

58890-78-1

Poly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyl), α-hydro-ω-hydroxy-, ether with 2,2′-[[3-[docosyl(2-hydroxyethyl)amino]propyl]imino]bis[ethanol] (3:1)

59044-29-0

9,12,15-Octadecatrienoyl chloride, (Z,Z,Z)-

59766-35-7

Zinc oxide sulfate (Zn4O3(SO4))

59867-68-4

Ethanone, 2,2-dichloro-1-(4-phenoxyphenyl)-

60162-07-4

2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-(dimethylamino)ethyl ester, sulfate (2:1), polymer with 2-propenamide

60683-03-6

2-Propenoic acid, 3,3′-(1,2-ethenediyldi-4,1-phenylene)bis-, diethyl ester

61600-15-5

Propanedinitrile, [3-(dihexylamino)-2-propenylidene]-

61788-37-2

Hexanoic acid, 2-ethyl-, rare earth salts

61788-71-4

Naphthenic acids, nickel salts

61789-72-8

Quaternary ammonium compounds, benzyl(hydrogenated tallow alkyl)dimethyl, chlorides

61791-23-9

Soybean oil, ethoxylated

61826-56-0

2H-2,4a-Methanonaphthalene-8-methanol, 1,3,4,5,6,7-hexahydro-1,1,5,5-tetramethyl-, acetate, (2S)-

61919-18-4

Benzenediazonium, 2-methoxy-5-nitro-, (T-4)-tetrachlorozincate(2-) (2:1)

62638-00-0

Cyclohexanebutanoic acid, lithium salt

62726-91-4

2,5-Cyclohexadiene-1,4-dione, 2-(3-hydroxy-3,7,11,15-tetramethylhexadecyl)-, [R-(R,R,R)]-

62796-27-4

1(3H)-Isobenzofuranone, 3-[4-hydroxy-2-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)phenyl]-3-[2-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-4-(phosphonooxy)phenyl]-, disodium salt

63022-06-0

Xanthylium, 9-[2-(ethoxycarbonyl)phenyl]-3,6-bis(ethylamino)-2,7-dimethyl-, molybdatesilicate

63123-15-9

1,4-Benzenediol, bis(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)-

63217-15-2

Ethanesulfonic acid, 2-[cyclohexyl(1-oxooctadecyl)amino]-, sodium salt

63393-96-4

Quaternary ammonium compounds, tri-C8-10-alkylmethyl, chlorides

63428-94-4

Formaldehyde, polymer with 2,4-dinonylphenol, 1,2-ethanediamine and 4-nonylphenol

63494-86-0

Formaldehyde, polymer with dinonylphenol and nonylphenol

63502-54-5

2-Propenoic acid, 2-(diethylamino)ethyl ester, sulfate, polymer with 2-propenamide

63674-30-6

Naphthalene, 1,2,3,4-tetrahydro(1-phenylethyl)-

64162-11-4

2,5-Furandione, dihydro-3-(tetrapropenyl)-, polymer with aziridine

64399-38-8

2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-(diethylamino)ethyl ester, polymer with dodecyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene, hexadecyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate and tetradecyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate

64601-11-2

Hexanedioic acid, monomethyl ester, lithium salt

64611-91-2

Phenoxazin-5-ium, 3-(diethylamino)-7-[(2-methylphenyl)amino]-, (T-4)-tetrachlorozincate(2-) (2:1)

64893-28-3

Benzoxazole, 2-[4-[2-[4-(3-methyl-1,2,4-oxadiazol-5-yl)phenyl] ethenyl]phenyl]-

65072-36-8

6-Benzothiazolesulfonic acid, 2-amino-, monolithium salt

65328-60-1

1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, 4,4′-carbonylbis-, polymer with 4-methyl-1,3-benzenediamine and 4,4′-methylenebis[benzenamine]

65545-83-7

Guanidine, cyano-, polymer with ammonium chloride ((NH4)Cl), 1,2-ethanediamine and formaldehyde

65622-94-8

2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-(dimethylamino)ethyl ester, polymer with 2-hydroxyethyl 2-propenoate, methyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate, 2-methylpropyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate and 2-propenoic acid

65733-81-5

Formaldehyde, polymer with 4-(1,1-dimethylethyl)phenol, 3-methylphenol and 4-methylphenol

65733-83-7

2-Propenenitrile, polymer with 1,3-butadiene, formaldehyde and phenol

66072-30-8

2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, telomer with butyl 2-propenoate, tert-dodecanethiol, ethenylbenzene, 2-hydroxyethyl 2-propenoate and 2-methyl-2-[(1-oxo-2-propenyl)amino]-1-propanesulfonic acid, compd. with 1,1′-iminobis[2-propanol]

66172-65-4

Aluminum magnesium chloride hydroxide

66992-09-4

Hexanedioic acid, polymer with 2-[(2-aminoethyl)amino]ethanesulfonic acid monosodium salt, 5-amino-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexanemethanamine, 1,6-diisocyanatohexane, 2,2-dimethyl-1,3-propanediol, 1,6-hexanediol, hydrazine and 5-isocyanato-1-(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane

67707-04-4

Benzenamine, 4,4′-[(9-butyl-9H-carbazol-3-yl)methylene]bis[N-methyl-N-phenyl-

67827-61-6

2-Anthracenesulfonic acid, 1-amino-4-[[3,5-bis[(benzoylamino) methyl]-2,4,6-trimethylphenyl]amino]-9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo-, monosodium salt

67859-71-6

Phosphoric acid, rhodium(3++) salt (1:1)

67860-00-8

1H-Indole-3-heptanol, η-1H-indol-3-yl-α,α,ε-trimethyl-

67875-42-7

Sulfurous acid, monosodium salt, polymer with formaldehyde and methylphenol

67892-85-7

Imidodicarbonic diamide, N,N′,2-tris(6-isocyanatohexyl)-, polymer with 2-ethyl-2-(hydroxymethyl)-1,3-propanediol, 2,5-furandione, 1,6-hexanediol, 1,3-isobenzofurandione and 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[cyclohexanol]

67905-56-0

9,10-Anthracenedione, 1-amino-4-[[4-[(dimethylamino)methyl]phenyl]amino]-, monohydrochloride

67905-96-8

Formaldehyde, polymer with N-(2-aminoethyl)-1,2-ethanediamine and 4-nonylphenol

67907-01-1

Ethanaminium, N,N,N-trimethyl-2-[(2-methyl-1-oxo-2-propenyl)oxy]-, chloride, polymer with ethyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate and methyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate

67953-78-0

Formaldehyde, polymer with 4-dodecylphenol and 1,2-ethanediamine

67990-40-3

2-Propen-1-aminium, N,N-dimethyl-N-2-propenyl-, chloride, polymer with 2-hydroxypropyl 2-propenoate and 2-propenoic acid

67990-56-1

Urea, polymer with formaldehyde and guanidine monohydrochloride

68003-30-5

Benzenesulfonic acid, 2,2′-(1,2-ethenediyl)bis[5-[[4-(2-hydroxypropoxy)-6-(phenylamino)-1,3,5-triazin-2-yl]amino]-, disodium salt

68036-95-3

Oxirane, methyl-, polymer with oxirane, ether with (chloromethyl)oxirane polymer with 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[phenol]

68037-07-0

Formaldehyde, polymers with sulfonated phenol, sodium salts

68037-17-2

2-Propenamide, polymer with ethenylbenzene, reaction products with formaldehyde, dimethylamine-modified

68039-34-9

Benzoic acid, 2-[[[3-(4-hydroxy-4-methylpentyl)-3cyclohexen-1-yl]methylene]amino]-, methyl ester

68052-67-5

Formaldehyde, polymer with 1-methyl-4-(1-methylethenyl)cyclohexene and phenol

68071-98-7

Quaternary ammonium compounds, ethyl(hydrogenated tallow alkyl)bis(hydroxyethyl), ethoxylated, Et sulfates (salts)

68072-38-8

Oxiranemethanol, polymer with nonylphenol

68110-12-3

Oxirane, tetradecyl-, homopolymer

68130-56-3

Formaldehyde, polymer with 6-phenyl-1,3,5-triazine-2,4-diamine, methylated

68130-68-7

1,3-Propanediamine, N-[3-(C12-18-alkyloxy)propyl] derivs.

68130-97-2

Aziridine, homopolymer, reaction products with 1,2-dichloroethane

68152-65-8

Rosin, maleated, polymer with palmitic acid and pentaerythritol

68154-74-5

Fatty acids, linseed-oil, polymers with bisphenol A, epichlorohydrin and rosin

68155-29-3

Amines, C15-23-sec-alkyl, compds. with 7-phenyl-5,9-bis(phenylamino)-4,10-disulfobenzo[a]phenazinium hydroxide inner salt (2:1)

68155-31-7

Amines, C15-23-sec-alkyl, compds. with 9-[(2-methoxyphenyl)amino]-7-phenyl-5-(phenylamino)-4,10-disulfobenzo[a]phenazinium hydroxide inner salt (2:1)

68155-39-5

Amines, C14-18 and C16-18-unsatd. alkyl, ethoxylated

68188-64-7

Fatty acids, tall-oil, polymers with bisphenol A, formaldehyde, glycerol, phthalic anhydride and rosin

68213-24-1

Alcohols, C12-16, ethoxylated propoxylated

68213-36-5

Fatty acids, C18-unsatd., dimers, polymers with ethylene glycol, linseed-oil fatty acids, pentaerythritol, phthalic anhydride, rosin and tall-oil fatty acids

68214-46-0

Formaldehyde, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[phenol], methyloxirane, methyloxirane polymer with oxirane ether with 1,2,3-propanetriol (3:1), 4-nonylphenol and oxirane

68228-02-4

Neodecanoic acid, palladium(2++) salt

68298-48-6

1,3-Benzodioxole, 2-hexyl-2-methyl-

68307-89-1

Aziridine, homopolymer, reaction products with epichlorohydrin

68309-04-6

Fatty acids, soya, polymers with allyl alc., maleic anhydride and styrene, compds. with morpholine

68309-99-9

Aluminate(1-), (2-ethyl-1-hexanolato)tris(2-propanolato)-, hydrogen, (T-4)-

68310-22-5

Cellulose, acetate butanoate, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[phenol], triethoxyphenylsilane and 3-(triethoxysilyl)-1-propanamine

68391-34-4

Formaldehyde, polymer with ammonia, methyloxirane, oxirane and phenol

68411-62-1

Naphthalenesulfonic acids, polymers with formaldehyde and 4,4′-sulfonylbis[phenol]

68412-21-5

Neodecanoic acid, rare earth salts

68412-22-6

Naphthalenesulfonic acid, di-C5-6-alkyl derivs., ammonium salts

68412-24-8

Naphthalene, 1,2,3,4-tetrahydro-, C1-4-alkyl derivs.

68412-56-6

Platinum, chloro octanol complexes

68413-64-9

Benzenediazonium, 2,5-bis(1-methylethoxy)-4(4-morpholinyl)-, (T-4)-tetrachlorozincate(2-) (2:1)

68458-26-4

Tallow, hydrogenated, reaction products with polyethylene glycol

68458-61-7

Rosin, maleated, polymer with p-tert-butylphenol and formaldehyde, zinc salt

68459-99-4

1-Penten-3-one, 4-methyl-1-(2,6,6-trimethyl-2-cyclohexen1-yl)-

68510-96-3

Guanidine, cyano-, polymer with 1,2-ethanediamine and formaldehyde, borate

68511-23-9

Formaldehyde, polymer with 2-methylphenol, 3-methylphenol and 4-methylphenol, 6-diazo-5,6-dihydro-5-oxo-1-naphthalenesulfonate

68513-39-3

Fatty acids, tall-oil, polymers with ethylenediamine, linoleic acid dimers, maleic anhydride, pentaerythritol, phthalic anhydride and soybean oil

68514-97-6

Rosin, maleated, polymer with ethylene glycol and methanol

68517-08-8

Glycine, N-(carboxymethyl)-N-[(3-ethenylphenyl)methyl]-, disodium salt, polymer with N-(carboxymethyl)-N-[(4-ethenylphenyl)methyl]glycine disodium salt, 1-(chloromethyl)-3-ethenylbenzene, 1-(chloromethyl)-4-ethenylbenzene, 1-(dichloromethyl)-3-ethenylbenzene, 1-(dichloromethyl)-4-ethenylbenzene, 1,3-diethenylbenzene, 1,4-diethenylbenzene, ethenylbenzene, 1-ethenyl-3-ethylbenzene and 1-ethenyl-4-ethylbenzene

68540-70-5

2-Naphthalenesulfonic acid, 6-hydroxy-, polymer with formaldehyde and methylphenol, sodium salt

68551-70-2

Castor oil, polymer with p-tert-butylphenol, formaldehyde and tung oil, zinc salt

68553-60-6

Naphthenic acids, vanadyl complexes

68584-75-8

2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester, polymer with oxiranylmethyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate, ammonia-modified

68585-03-5

9-Octadecenoic acid (Z)-, reaction products with Bu alc., silicic acid (H4SiO4) tetraethyl ester and triethanolamine

68585-28-4

Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis-, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane, reaction products with 3,3′-[oxybis(2,1-ethanediyloxy)]bis[1-propanamine]

68585-82-0

Yttrium oxide (Y2O3), europium-doped

68603-59-8

Amines, C11-14-tert-alkyl, reaction products with maleic anhydride-tetradecene polymer

68609-12-1

1,2-Ethanediamine, N-(2-aminoethyl)-, reaction products with aniline and polyethylene-polypropylene glycol ether with sucrose

68610-10-6

Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis-, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane, reaction products with (Z)-N-9-octadecenyl-1,3-propanediamine

68610-28-6

1,3-Propanediamine, N-octadecyl-, carboxymethyl derivs.

68611-24-5

Phenol, polymer with formaldehyde, magnesium oxide complex

68647-36-9

Xanthylium, 9-(2-carboxyphenyl)-3,6-bis(diethylamino)-, tungstatesilicate

68783-72-2

Linseed oil, epoxidized, polymer with acrylic acid

68784-03-2

Aluminum, 9-(2-carboxyphenyl)-3,6-bis(diethylamino)xanthylium benzoate complexes

68784-80-5

Terpineol, sulfurized

68834-02-6

2-Anthracenesulfonic acid, 1-amino-4-[[4-[[(4-methylphenyl)sulfonyl]oxy]phenyl]amino]-9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo-

68845-02-3

Benzoic acid, 2-[[(2,4-dimethyl-3-cyclohexen-1-yl)methylene]amino]-, methyl ester

68877-31-6

2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, butyl ester, polymer with methyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate, 2-methylpropyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate and 2-sulfoethyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate

68892-00-2

Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, polymer with 4-(1,1-dimethylethyl)phenol, formaldehyde and 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[phenol]

68907-19-7

Azulene, 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8-octahydro-1,4-dimethyl-7-(1-methylethyl)-, didehydro deriv.

68910-44-1

Sulfite liquors and Cooking liquors, spent, alkali-sulfur dioxide-treated, zinc salts

68916-30-3

Balsams, Douglas-fir, sulfurized, rhodium salts

68916-35-8

Balsams, copaiba, sulfurized, platinum salts

68920-71-8

Alkenes, C8-30, bromo

68937-02-0

1H-Imidazole-1-ethanol, 4,5-dihydro-, 2-C15-17-unsatd. alkyl derivs., acetates (salts)

68954-74-5

Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis-, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane, 2-(1-methylethyl)-1H-imidazole-modified

68955-78-2

Balsams, copaiba, sulfurized, gold salts

68956-80-9

Resin acids and Rosin acids, bismuth salts

68957-11-9

Soybean oil, polymer with formaldehyde, glycerol, isophthalic acid and melamine

68988-23-8

Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, reaction products with benzyl alc., bisphenol A-epichlorohydrin polymer and 4,4′-methylenebis[benzenamine]

68989-17-3

Sulfonic acids, C20-30-alkane, zinc salts

68989-42-4

Balsams, Canada, zirconium salts

68990-29-4

Balsams, copaiba, sulfurized, vanadium salts

68992-14-3

2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-(diethylamino)ethyl ester, polymer with dodecyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate, 1-ethenyl-2-pyrrolidinone and methyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate

69011-89-8

Oxirane, methyl-, polymer with oxirane, ether with 2,2′-[[3-[(2-hydroxyethyl)amino]propyl]imino]bis[ethanol] (3:1), N-tallow alkyl derivs.

69121-13-7

4,7-Methanoazulene-8-methanol, decahydro-2-(1-methylethenyl)-, acetate

69834-10-2

Cyclohexanol, 2(3 or 4)-(7,7-dimethylbicyclo[2.2.1]hept-2-yl)-

69961-73-5

Naphthalenesulfonic acid, polymer with formaldehyde and 4,4′-sulfonylbis[phenol], sodium salt

70172-00-8

3-Buten-2-ol, 3-methyl-4-(2,6,6-trimethyl-2-cyclohexen-1-yl)-

70236-45-2

3H-Indolium, 2-[2-[4-[(2-cyanoethyl)methylamino]phenyl]ethenyl]-1,3,3-trimethyl-, trichlorozincate(1-)

70321-75-4

Balsams, Douglas-fir, sulfurized, palladium salts

70703-43-4

Formaldehyde, polymer with 1,3-benzenediamine, (chloromethyl)oxirane, 4,4′-methylenebis[benzenamine], 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[phenol], 3-oxiranyl-7-oxabicyclo[4.1.0]heptane and phenol

70750-15-1

Formaldehyde, polymer with 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene) bis[phenol], Bu ether

70750-60-6

Formaldehyde, polymer with 4-(1,1-dimethylethyl)phenol, phenol and 4-(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)phenol

70815-30-4

2-Naphthalenesulfonic acid, sodium salt, polymer with cyanoguanidine and formaldehyde

70892-22-7

9,10-Anthracenedione, 1,8-diamino-4,5-dihydroxy-, methylated

70892-67-0

Phenol, polymer with formaldehyde, sulfonated

70983-56-1

Guanidine, cyano-, polymer with N-(2-aminoethyl)-1,2-ethanediamine, hydrochloride, cupric chloride complexes

71033-04-0

2-Butenedioic acid, 2-mercapto-, polymer with 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate, 2-mercaptoethanol, methyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate and N,N′,2-tris(6-isocyanatohexyl)imidodicarbonic diamide

71610-58-7

Ethanaminium, N,N,N-trimethyl-2-[(2-methyl-1-oxo-2-propenyl)oxy]-, salt with 4-methylbenzenesulfonic acid (1:1), polymer with dodecyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate and ethenylmethylbenzene

71965-03-2

Cyclohexanol, methyl-, titanium(4++) salt

72013-84-4

Cyclododeca[b]furan, tetradecahydro-

72152-61-5

2-Anthracenesulfonic acid, 1-amino-4-[(3,5-dibromo-2,4,6-trimethylphenyl)amino]-9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo-, monosodium salt

72187-18-9

Naphthalenesulfonic acid, [(9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo-1,4-anthracenediyl)diimino]bis[1,2,3,4-tetrahydro-, disodium salt

72187-19-0

Benzenesulfonic acid, 2(or 5)-[[1-benzoyl-2,7-dihydro-2,7-dioxo-6-[(sulfophenyl)amino]-3H-dibenz[f,ij]isoquinolin-4-yl]oxy]-5(or 2)-(1,1-dimethylpropyl)-, disodium salt

72391-23-2

Benzenesulfonic acid, 2(or 5)-[[1-amino-4-[[3-[[(chloroacetyl)amino]methyl]-2,4,6-trimethylphenyl]amino]-9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo-2-anthracenyl]oxy]-5(or 2)-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-, monosodium salt

72480-33-2

Silane, triethoxyphenyl-, hydrolyzed

72828-32-1

3-Cyclohexene-1-methanol, α,α,4-trimethyl-, mixed with α-pinene and β-pinene, sulfurized, reaction products with gold chloride (AuCl3)

72828-88-7

Benzenesulfonic acid, 3-[(4-amino-9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo-3-phenoxy-1-anthracenyl)amino]-2,4-diethyl-6-methyl-, monosodium salt

72869-37-5

Zinc sulfide (ZnS), cobalt and copper-doped

72905-89-6

Thiosulfuric acid, disodium salt, reaction products with 4-(6-methyl-2-benzothiazolyl)benzenamine, p-phenylenediamine, sodium sulfide (Na2(S)) and sulfur

72929-02-3

Propanoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2,2,2-trichloro-1-phenylethyl ester

72986-37-9

Resin acids and Rosin acids, tin salts

73003-40-4

5-Azulenemethanol, 1,2,3,3a,4,5,6,7(or 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8)-octahydro-α,α,3,8-tetramethyl-

73003-46-0

2-Naphthalenesulfonic acid, 6-hydroxy-, monosodium salt, polymer with disodium sulfite, formaldehyde and methylphenol

73003-55-1

Carbonic acid, diphenyl ester, polymer with 1,6-hexanediol, 5-isocyanato-1-(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane and 4,4′-methylenebis[cyclohexanamine]

73019-02-0

Formaldehyde, polymer with benzenemethanol

73195-14-9

Bisbenzimidazo[2,1-b:1′,2′-j]benzo[lmn][3,8]phenanthroline-6,9-dione, ethoxy-

73195-15-0

Bisbenzimidazo[2,1-b:2′,1′-i]benzo[lmn][3,8]phenanthroline-8,17-dione, ethoxy-

73287-55-5

1H-Indene-5-carboxamide, 2-(4-bromo-3-hydroxy2-quinolinyl)-N,N-diethyl-2,3-dihydro-1,3-dioxo-

73398-72-8

2-Propanol, compd. with 4-[(2,6-dichlorophenyl)(4-imino3,5-dimethyl-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene)methyl]2,6-dimethylbenzenamine phosphate

73545-11-6

8-Quinolinol, 7-(4-ethyl-1-methyloctyl)-

74253-03-5

Cyclohexene, 4-(1,5-dimethyl-1-hexenyl)-1-methyl-

74253-04-6

Cyclohexene, 1-methyl-4-(5-methyl-1-methylenehexyl)-

74253-05-7

Cyclohexene, 4-(1,5-dimethylhexylidene)-1-methyl-

75199-12-1

Benzenesulfonic acid, 4-hydroxy-, polymer with formaldehyde and 4,4′-sulfonylbis[phenol], sodium salt

75300-89-9

Fatty acids, C12-18, propoxylated

75522-97-3

Adenosine 5′-(hexahydrogen pentaphosphate), 5′→5′-ester with adenosine, trilithium salt

75701-47-2

Benzenesulfonic acid, 3,3′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[6-hydroxy-, disodium salt, polymer with formaldehyde and 4,4′-sulfonylbis[phenol]

76649-35-9

Hexanedioic acid, polymer with N-(2-aminoethyl)1,2-ethanediamine, ammonia, (chloromethyl)oxirane, formaldehyde and formic acid

76684-66-7

Fatty acids, tall-oil, polymers with polyethylenepolyamines

77203-01-1

Cyclododecane, (1,1-dimethylethoxy)-

79704-00-0

Ferrate(4-), hexakis(cyano-C)-, (OC-6-11)-, dicopper(1++) dihydrogen, compd. with 4-[(4-aminophenyl)(4-imino-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene)methyl]-2-methylbenzenamine (1:2)

80571-52-4

Ethanone, 1-(trimethylcyclododecatrienyl)-

82640-16-2

Formaldehyde, polymers with sulfonated 1,1′-oxybis[methylbenzene] and sulfonylbis[phenol], ammonium sodium salts

83006-69-3

2-Anthracenesulfonic acid, 5,8-bis[[4-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-2-sulfophenyl]amino]-9,10-dihydro-1,4-dihydroxy-9,10-dioxo-, trisodium salt

83027-61-6

Benzenesulfonic acid, [(9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo1,4-anthracenediyl)diimino]bis[ethylmethyl-, disodium salt

83027-64-9

Benzenesulfonic acid, 2,2′(or 3,3′)-[(4,8-diamino-3,7-dibromo-9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo-1,5-anthracenediyl)diimino]bis[5(or 6)-methyl-, disodium salt

83290-91-9

9,10-Anthracenedione, dibromo-1,8-diamino-4,5-dihydroxy-

83721-46-4

Methanesulfonamide, 1-chloro-N-[4,5-dichloro2-(2,4-dichlorophenoxy)phenyl]-, sodium salt

83930-04-5

Ethanaminium, N-[4-[(2-chlorophenyl)(1-methyl-2-phenyl-1H-indol-3-yl)methylene]-2,5-cyclohexadien-1-ylidene]-N-ethyl-, chloride, compd. with zinc chloride (ZnCl2)

83949-67-1

3H-Indolium, 2-[2-[4-[(2-chloroethyl)ethylamino]2-methylphenyl]ethenyl]-1,3,3-trimethyl-, phosphate (1:1)

83968-83-6

9,10-Anthracenedione, 1-amino4-[[4-[(dimethylamino)methyl]phenyl]amino]-, monoacetate

84012-64-6

1-Cyclopentene-1-propanol, β,β,2-trimethyl5-(1-methylethenyl)-, propanoate

84434-64-0

Cyclohexanemethanol, 4-ethenyl-α,α,4-trimethyl3-(1-methylethenyl)-, acetate

85029-57-8

Amines, C10-14-branched and linear alkyl, bis[2,4-dihydro-4-[(2-hydroxy-4-nitrophenyl)azo]-5-methyl-2-phenyl-3Hpyrazol-3-onato(2-)]chromate(1-)

85392-23-0

Benzenesulfonamide, 4-[(1-amino-9,10-dihydro-4-hydroxy-9,10-dioxo-2-anthracenyl)thio]-N-(3-ethoxypropyl)-

86352-11-6

Formaldehyde, polymers with sulfonated terphenyl

86352-12-7

Formaldehyde, polymers with sulfonated terphenyl, ammonium salts

87836-98-4

Carbonic acid, diphenyl ester, polymer with 1,6-hexanediol, 5-isocyanato-1-(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane and 2-oxepanone

90170-94-8

Benzenamine, 3-methyl-, reaction products with chlorobenzene and 1-chloro-4-(trichloromethyl)benzene, monosulfo derivs.

90235-73-7

2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, 1,1-dimethylethyl 2-propenoate, 1-ethenyl-1H-imidazole, 4-hydroxybutyl 2-propenoate and 2-hydroxyethyl 2-propenoate

90367-48-9

Formaldehyde, reaction products with N,N-dimethylbenzenamine and N-ethyl-2-methylbenzenamine, oxidized, molybdatetungstatephosphates

91081-19-5

Resin acids and Rosin acids, cerium(3++) salts

91081-41-3

Resin acids and Rosin acids, titanium salts

91696-28-5

9,10-Anthracenedione, 1,5-diamino-4,8-dihydroxy-, brominated

92400-09-4

Propanamide, 3-(dodecylthio)-2-methyl-N[2-[2-(1-methylethyl)-1-imidazolidinyl]ethyl]-

93455-61-9

Phenol, tert-Bu 1-phenylethyl 1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl derivs.

93918-06-0

Aluminum, (2-butanolato)bis(ethyl 3-oxobutanoato-O1′,O3)-

94022-30-7

Pyridine, 2-[3-(2-chlorophenyl)propyl]-

95649-13-1

Lignosulfonic acid, calcium salt, polymer with cyanoguanidine, formaldehyde and sodium lignosulfonate

95851-08-4

Cyclohexanepropanol, 2,2,3,6-tetramethyl-α-propyl-

96278-66-9

Naphthalenesulfonic acids, polymers with formaldehyde, sulfonated terphenyl and sulfonylbis[phenol], ammonium sodium salts

96557-46-9

1H,3H-Benzo[1,2-c:4,5-c′]difuran-1,3,5,7-tetrone, polymer with 1,2-benzenediamine, 1,3-benzenediamine, 1,4-benzenediamine, 4-[4-[1-[4-[(1,3-dihydro-1,3-dioxo5-isobenzofuranyl)oxy]phenyl]-1-methylethyl]phenoxy]1,3-isobenzofurandione, 1,3-isobenzofurandione, 4,4′-[(1-methylethylidene)bis(4,1-phenyleneoxy)]bis[1,3-isobenzofurandione] and 5,5′-[(1-methylethylidene)bis(4,1-phenyleneoxy)]bis[1,3-isobenzofurandione]

96591-19-4

Fatty acids, tall-oil, reaction products with 2-amino2-(hydroxymethyl)-1,3-propanediol and formaldehyde, polymers with Bu methacrylate, 2-(diethylamino)ethyl methacrylate, 2-hydroxyethyl acrylate and Me methacrylate

97280-84-7

3H-Indolium, 2-[2-(2,3-dihydro-2-methyl-1H-indol1-yl)ethenyl]-1,3,3-trimethyl-, cyano phosphate cuprate ferrate complexes

97375-18-3

Benzenesulfonic acid, 2,2′-[(9,10-dihydro-9,10-dioxo1,4-anthracenediyl)diimino]bis[5-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-, sodium salt

99377-79-4

Phenol, polymer with formaldehyde, glycidyl ether, polymer with [(methylphenoxy)methyl]oxirane and triethylenetetramine acetates (salts)

100402-68-4

Palladium, isooctyl 3-mercaptopropanoate complexes

101545-02-2

2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, ethenylbenzene, formaldehyde, 2-hydroxyethyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate, methyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate, methyl 2-propenoate, oxiranylmethyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate, 2-propenenitrile and 1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine, Bu alc.-terminated

102262-31-7

Xanthylium, 3,6-bis(diethylamino)9-[2-(methoxycarbonyl)phenyl]-, cyano cuprate ferrate complexes

103694-73-1

2-Propenoic acid, polymer with 2-ethyl-2-(hydroxymethyl)1,3-propanediol and methyloxirane, compd. with N-ethylethanamine

103777-67-9

2-Propenoic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)ethyl ester, polymer with 2-propenamide, sulfate

104339-53-9

Formaldehyde, polymer with 1,3-diisocyanato2-methylbenzene, 2,4-diisocyanato-1-methylbenzene, 2,2′-(methylimino)bis[ethanol], oxirane and 1,2-propanediol

104339-59-5

Butanedioic acid, methylene-, polymer with butyl 2-propenoate, N-(hydroxymethyl)-2-propenamide, 2-propenamide, 2-propenenitrile and 2-propenoic acid

104339-64-2

1,2-Ethanediamine, N,N,N′,N′-tetramethyl-, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane, hydrochloride

104351-91-9

Poly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyl), α-[2-[hexadecyl(2-sulfoethyl)amino]ethyl]-ω-hydroxy-, monosodium salt

104351-96-4

Hexanedioic acid, dimethyl ester, polymer with 5-amino-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexanemethanamine, diphenyl carbonate, 1,6-hexanediol, hydrazine, 5-isocyanato-1-(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane and 2,2′-[oxybis(2,1-ethanediyloxy)]bis[ethanol]

104376-58-1

Carbonic dichloride, polymer with 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[phenol], (1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)phenyl ester

104376-67-2

Formaldehyde, polymers with branched nonylphenol, sulfonated, sodium salts

105839-25-6

Fatty acids, C18-unsatd., dimers, polymers with bisphenol A, epichlorohydrin and triethylenetetramine

106214-53-3

Amides, C14-18 and C14-18-unsatd., reaction products with formaldehyde and phenol, ethoxylated

107783-08-4

Benzeneacetonitrile, α-[(diphenylmethylene)amino]-α-phenyl-

108126-46-1

Hexanedioic acid, polymer with ammonia, 2-butene-1,4-diol, 1,6-diisocyanatohexane, 1,2-ethanediol, 3-hydroxy-2-(hydroxymethyl)-2-methylpropanoic acid, 5-isocyanato-1-(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane and 1,1′-methylenebis[4-isocyanatocyclohexane], compd. with N,N-diethylethanamine, reaction products with polyethylene-polypropylene glycol mono-Bu ether and sodium bisulfite

108126-47-2

Hexanedioic acid, polymer with 2-butene-1,4-diol, 1,6-diisocyanatohexane, 2-ethyl-2-(hydroxymethyl)-1,3-propanediol, 1,6-hexanediol, hydrazine, 1,1′-methylenebis[4-isocyanatocyclohexane] and methyloxirane, bisulfited

109066-19-5

Propanoic acid, 3-hydroxy-2-(hydroxymethyl)-2-methyl-, polymer with 1,6-diisocyanatohexane, 2-ethyl-2-(hydroxymethyl)-1,3-propanediol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[phenol] and methyloxirane, compd. with 2-(dimethylamino)ethanol

109159-24-2

Hexanedioic acid, polymer with 5-amino-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexanemethanamine, 1,4-butanediol, 2,2-dimethyl-1,3-propanediol, 1,6-hexanediol, 5-isocyanato-1-(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[phenol] and methyloxirane, 2-ethyl-1-hexanol-blocked

109159-25-3

Hexanedioic acid, polymer with 5-amino-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexanemethanamine, 1,4-butanediol, 1,6-hexanediol, 5-isocyanato-1-(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[phenol] and methyloxirane, 2-ethyl-1-hexanol-blocked

111719-83-6

1H-Indene-1,3(2H)-dione, 2-benzo[f]quinolin-3-yl-, (1,3-dimethyl-1H-imidazolium-4-yl)methyl derivs., Me sulfates

111849-98-0

Carbonic acid, diphenyl ester, polymer with 1,6-hexanediol, 5-isocyanato-1-(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane and 4,4′-methylenebis[cyclohexanamine], Me Et ketone oxime-blocked

111905-65-8

Fatty acids, C18-unsatd., dimers, polymers with acrylonitrile-1,4-butanediol reaction product, bisphenol A, epichlorohydrin and ethylenediamine

113455-51-9

2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-hydroxyethyl ester, polymer with dichlorodimethylsilane, dichlorodiphenylsilane, methyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate, trichloromethylsilane, trichlorophenylsilane and 3-(trimethoxysilyl)propyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate

113534-62-6

9-Octadecenamide, N-[2-[(2-aminoethyl)amino]ethyl]-, (Z)-, ethoxylated

114887-02-4

Benzenediazonium, 4-[(4-sulfophenyl)azo]-, chloride, reaction products with formaldehyde-salicylic acid polymer, sodium salts

115100-56-6

Benzenediazonium, 4-[(2-methoxyphenyl)azo]-2-methyl-5-[(2-nitro-4-sulfophenyl)amino]-, chloride, reaction products with formaldehyde-salicylic acid polymer, sodium salts

117204-17-8

2H-1,2,6-Thiadiazine-3,5(4H,6H)-dione, 2,6-dicyclohexyl-4-(2-methylpropyl)-, 1,1-dioxide

117520-84-0

Formaldehyde, polymer with dimethylphenol, 3-methylphenol and 4-methylphenol

118516-12-4

1H-Imidazole, 2-undecyl-, zinc salt

120196-33-0

Formaldehyde, polymer with 1-butanol and 1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine

121028-80-6

Furan, tetrahydro-, polymer with 4,4′-diisocyanato-3,3′-dimethyl-1,1′-biphenyl and oxirane

121028-97-5

2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester, polymer with (Z)-9-octadecen-1-amine

121372-49-4

1-Naphthalenesulfonic acid, 6-diazo-5,6-dihydro-5-oxo-, 1-(1-naphthalenylmethyl)-2-naphthalenyl ester

124058-18-0

Formaldehyde, polymer with methanol and phenol

124547-64-4

L-threo-α-D-galacto-Octopyranoside, methyl 7-chloro-6,7,8-trideoxy-3,4-O-(1-methylethylidene)-6-[[(1-methyl-4-propyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)carbonyl]amino]-1-thio-, 2-(phenylmethyl hydrogen phosphate), monohydrochloride, (2S-trans)-

124563-79-7

Fatty acids, dehydrated castor-oil, polymers with benzoic acid, 2-ethylhexyl acrylate, glycerol, hexakis(methoxymethyl)melamine, hydroxyethyl methacrylate, iso-Bu methacrylate, linseed oil, methacrylic acid, pentaerythritol, phthalic anhydride and styrene

124578-10-5

Formaldehyde, polymer with phenol and 4,4′-thiobis[phenol], sulfomethylated

124988-74-5

Propanol, [(1-methylethylidene)bis(4,1-phenyleneoxy)]bis-, polymer with hydrazine, 5-isocyanato-1-(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane, methyloxirane and 2,2′-oxybis[ethanol]

125249-25-4

2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, polymer with ethenylbenzene, 2-ethylhexyl 2-propenoate, N,N,N′,N′,N″,N″-hexakis(methoxymethyl)-1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine, 2-hydroxyethyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate and 2-methylpropyl 2-methyl-2-propenoate

125328-36-1

Amines, C20-22, acetates

125328-44-1

Amines, hydrogenated rape-oil alkyl, acetates

125328-83-8

2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-methyl-7-(phosphonooxy)-, dilithium salt

125408-55-1

Castor oil, polymer with bisphenol A, p-tert-butylphenol, formaldehyde, glycerol, maleic anhydride, rosin and tung oil

125514-69-4

Aluminum magnesium hydroxide sulfate (Al5Mg10(OH)31(SO4)2)

125715-38-0

Pyridinium, 5-ethenyl-1,2-dimethyl-, chloride, polymer with 5-ethenyl-2-methylpyridine

125826-42-8

Hexanedioic acid, polymer with 1,2-ethanediol, hydrazine, 3-hydroxy-2-(hydroxymethyl)-2-methylpropanoic acid and 1,1′-methylenebis[4-isocyanatocyclohexane], compd. with N,N-diethylethanamine

126820-93-7

Bicyclo[3.1.1]heptanethiol, 2,6,6-trimethyl-, gold(1++) salt, reaction products with palladium isooctyl 3-mercaptopropanoate complexes and sulfur

126948-54-7

Benzoic acid, 2-[[2-methyl-3-(4-methylphenyl)propylidene]amino]-, methyl ester

127153-78-0

Amines, N-(C18-22 and C20-22-unsatd. alkyl)trimethylenedi-, ethoxylated

127153-80-4

[1,1′-Biphenyl]-4-ol, isobutylenated

127947-25-5

Fatty acids, soya, propoxylated

129126-85-8

Linseed oil, polymer with benzoic acid, formaldehyde, pentaerythritol, phenol, phthalic anhydride, rosin, 3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-1,3-isobenzofurandione and trimethylolpropane

129126-88-1

Linseed oil, polymer with benzoic acid, formaldehyde, pentaerythritol, phenol, phthalic anhydride, TDI, 3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-1,3-isobenzofurandione and trimethylolpropane, compds. with 2-(dimethylamino)ethanol

129156-30-5

Silane, triethyl[(2,3,3a,4-tetrahydro-1H-benz[f]inden-4-yl)oxy]-

129212-18-6

2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, 2-(dimethylamino)ethyl ester, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane, N,N-dimethyl-1,3-propanediamine, ethenylbenzene, 2-ethyl-2-(hydroxymethyl)-1,3-propanediol, ethyl 2-propenoate, 2-hydroxyethyl 2-propenoate, 5-isocyanato-1-(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis[phenol], 2-oxepanone and tetradecyl oxirane

129539-21-5

Fatty acids, tall-oil, polymers with glycerol, pentaerythritol, phthalic anhydride and trimethylolpropane, reaction products with 1,3-benzenedimethanamine, TDI and tridecanol

129756-31-6

Hexanedioic acid, polymer with 5-amino-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexanemethanamine, 1,6-diisocyanatohexane, 2,2-dimethyl-1,3-propanediol, 1,6-hexanediol, hydrazine and 5-isocyanato-1-(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane

129756-32-7

Ethanesulfonic acid, 2-hydroxy-, zinc salt (2:1)

129783-32-0

Ethanamine, N-ethyl-, reaction products with maleated oligomeric polybutadiene-styrene polymer, ammonium salts, compds. with diethylamine

129783-37-5

Sulfurous acid, monosodium salt, polymer with 1,4-butanediol, 2-butene-1,4-diol, methyloxirane and N,N′,2-tris(6-isocyanatohexyl)imidodicarbonic diamide, Me Et ketone oxime-blocked

129783-39-7

Sulfurous acid, monosodium salt, polymer with 2-butene-1,4-diol, methyloxirane and N,N′,2-tris(6-isocyanatohexyl)imidodicarbonic diamide, Me Et ketone oxime-blocked

129811-21-8

Rare earth metals, 2-ethylhexanoate naphthenate complexes

129828-32-6

Formaldehyde, polymer with 4-(1,1-dimethylethyl)phenol, 4-nonylphenol and phenol

129870-79-7

Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis-, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane, reaction products with butylated formaldehyde-phenol polymer

129984-36-7

Propanoic acid, 3-hydroxy-2-(hydroxymethyl)-2-methyl-, polymer with hydrazine, α-hydro-ω-hydroxypoly[oxy(methyl-1,2-ethanediyl)] and 5-isocyanato-1-(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane, compd. with N,N-diethylethanamine

131731-18-5

Imidodicarbonic diamide, N,N′,2-tris(6-isocyanatohexyl)-, polymer with 1,4-butanediol, 2-butene-1,4-diol and methyloxirane, bisulfited, Me Et ketone oxime-blocked

131731-20-9

Imidocarbonic diamide, N,N′,2-tris(6-isocyanatohexyl)-, polymer with 2-butene-1,4-diol and methyloxirane, bisulfited, Me Et ketone oxime-blocked

132435-11-1

Formaldehyde, polymer with phenol, compd. with 2,3,4,6,7,8,9,10-octahydropyrimido[1,2-a]azepine

139349-56-7

Phenol, 4,4′-(1-methylethylidene)bis-, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane, triethoxyphenylsilane and 3-(triethoxysilyl)-1-propanamine

139730-54-4

Amides, from hydrogenated tallow and tetraethylenepentamine, polymers with epichlorohydrin and polyethylene glycol

144058-38-8

Hexanedioic acid, polymer with 5-amino-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexanemethanamine, 2-butene-1,4-diol, 1,6-diisocyanatohexane, 2,2-dimethyl-1,3-propanediol, 1,6-hexanediol, hydrazine, 5-isocyanato-1(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane, methyloxirane and sodium hydrogen sulfite

144058-39-9

Hexanedioic acid, polymer with hydrazine, 5-isocyanato-1-(isocyanatomethyl)-1,3,3-trimethylcyclohexane, [(1-methylethylidene)bis(4,1-phenyleneoxy)]bis[propanol], methyloxirane and 2,2′-oxybis[ethanol]

159317-41-6

[1,1′-Biphenyl]-2,2′-disulfonic acid, 4-[(1-hydroxy-4-sulfo-2-naphthalenyl)azo]-5,5′-dimethyl-4′-[[4-[(phenylsulfonyl)oxy]phenyl]azo]-, trisodium salt

168109-77-1

Formaldehyde, polymer with (chloromethyl)oxirane and 2-methylphenol, reaction products with bisphenol A-epichlorohydrin polymer and 1,2-cyclohexanediamine

* The Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number (CAS RN) is the property of the American Chemical Society, and any use or redistribution, except as required in supporting regulatory requirements and/or for reports to the Government when the information and the reports are required by law or administrative policy, is not permitted without the prior, written permission of the American Chemical Society.

Pursuant to section 74 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (CEPA 1999), the Ministers of the Environment and Health have conducted a rapid screening assessment on 1 066 substances which met ecological categorization criteria and that were identified as having a low likelihood of causing harmful ecological effects.

Substances considered in this rapid screening assessment are those that were nominated to the Domestic Substances List at total quantities in commerce of ≤ 1 000 kg in 1986, those that were identified as inherently toxic (ecological) and either persistent or bioaccumulative (but not both), and those that are not already being addressed under other assessment activity.

Of the 1 066 substances that were considered in the original draft screening assessment published in 2007, 19 have been removed because 15 were found to be in commerce at quantities greater than 1 000 kg per year based on new information, and 4 substances have since been removed from the Domestic Substances List.

The rapid screening approach involves four main steps in identifying substances that require further evaluation of their potential to cause harm. The first step consists of determining if substances are already being addressed under other assessment activity. At this first step, 140 substances were identified as being addressed under other assessment activity, or no longer met the scope of the rapid screening approach and did not proceed to step 2.

The second step involves applying different exposure scenarios using assumptions that are protective of the environment. First, two generic aquatic exposure scenarios are used to consider the potential for ecological risk due to industrial point-source releases and residential releases to municipal wastewater from use of consumer products. In addition, where applicable, a regional-scale fugacity-based multi-media model called RAIDAR (Risk Assessment, IDentification And Ranking) is used to identify additional substances that might pose a concern in different environmental media or in food chains. Step 2 identified another 217 substances that require further assessment.

The third step involves a mechanical process to identify whether or not a substance appears on any of a wide range of different lists or in sources of information relating to ecological hazard or exposure (including quantity in commerce). This flags substances that have been identified by domestic or international initiatives as being of greater concern due to their hazard properties, or which may now be in commerce at greater quantities than considered to be the case based on the available information. Each of the information sources is allocated a weighting that reflects its relevance to the context of this evaluation. Some sources are considered of sufficient relevance that substances that they include are immediately identified as requiring further assessment. Others, that are either considered of lesser relevance or for which more detailed evaluation of substance-specific data contained in the information source is possible, are directed to the manual process stage for a decision to be made based on the weight of the full range of available information. The mechanical filters identified 25 substances as requiring further assessment. The manual process was used to conduct a more detailed evaluation of 329 substances, and of these, 49 were identified as requiring further assessment.

The fourth step is comprised of a process to determine whether the substance was of concern from a human health perspective. A key element of characterization of potential risk for human health is determination of potential for exposure to the general population. Substances assumed to be in commerce in Canada at less than 1 000 kg are considered to result in potential exposure to the general population if there is evidence of direct (e.g. exposure from products, processed foods) exposure. If potential for exposure is considered negligible for a substance, it is concluded that that substance is unlikely to cause harm to human health at current levels of exposure. At this step, 71 substances were identified requiring further assessment based on potential exposure to the general population.

In total, 502 substances were identified through the rapid screening approach as requiring further assessment.

Proposed conclusion

Based on the information available, it is proposed to conclude that 545 substances are not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that have or may have an immediate or long-term harmful effect on the environment or its biological diversity, that constitute or may constitute a danger to the environment on which life depends, or that constitute or may constitute a danger in Canada to human life or health. It is therefore proposed that these 545 substances do not meet the criteria as set out in section 64 of CEPA 1999.

These 545 substances will be included in a future Domestic Substances List inventory update initiative to verify the assumptions made regarding volumes in use in Canada. In addition, and where relevant, research and monitoring will support verification of assumptions used during the screening assessment.

The draft Screening Assessment for these substances is available on the Government of Canada’s Chemical Substances Web site at www.chemicalsubstances.gc.ca.

[25-1-o]

DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY AND EMERGENCY PREPAREDNESS

CRIMINAL CODE

Designation as fingerprint examiner

Pursuant to subsection 667(5) of the Criminal Code, I hereby designate the following persons of the Royal Canadian Mounted Police as fingerprint examiners:

Eric Brian Page

Michael Anthony Dubyk

Patricia LaFrance

Tim Walker

Ottawa, May 31, 2011

RICHARD WEX
Assistant Deputy Minister
Law Enforcement and Policing Branch

[25-1-o]

DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORT

AERONAUTICS ACT

Interim Order No. 6 Respecting Private Operators

Whereas the annexed Interim Order No. 6 Respecting Private Operators is required to deal with a significant risk, direct or indirect, to aviation safety or the safety of the public;

Whereas the provisions of the annexed Interim Order No. 6 Respecting Private Operators may be contained in a regulation made pursuant to section 4.9 (see footnote a), paragraphs 7.6(1)(a) (see footnote b) and (b) (see footnote c) and section 7.7 (see footnote d) of Part I of the Aeronautics Act (see footnote e);

And whereas, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1.2) (see footnote f) of the Aeronautics Act (see footnote g), the Minister of Transport has consulted with the persons and organizations that the Minister considers appropriate in the circumstances concerning the annexed Interim Order No. 6 Respecting Private Operators;

Therefore, the Minister of Transport, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1) (see footnote h) of the Aeronautics Act (see footnote i), hereby makes the annexed Interim Order No. 6 Respecting Private Operators.

Ottawa, June 3, 2011

DENIS LEBEL
Minister of Transport

INTERIM ORDER NO. 6 RESPECTING PRIVATE OPERATORS

INTERPRETATION

Definitions

1. (1) The following definitions apply in this Interim Order.

“private operator”
« exploitant privé »

“private operator”, despite the definition in subsection 101.01(1) of the Regulations, means the holder of a temporary private operator certificate issued under Schedule 1.

“Regulations”
« Règlement »

“Regulations” means the Canadian Aviation Regulations.

Terminology

(2) Unless the context requires otherwise, all other words and expressions in this Interim Order have the same meaning as in the Regulations.

Schedules 1 and 2

(3) Schedules 1 and 2 are considered to be part of the Regulations, with any necessary modifications.

Conflict between Interim Order and Regulations

(4) In the event of a conflict between this Interim Order and the Regulations, the Interim Order prevails.

DESIGNATED PROVISIONS

Suspension

2. (1) The effect of Subpart 4 of Part VI of Schedule II to Subpart 3 of Part I of the Regulations is suspended.

Designation

(2) The designated provisions set out in column I of Schedule 2 are designated as provisions the contravention of which may be dealt with under and in accordance with the procedure set out in sections 7.7 to 8.2 of the Act.

Maximum amounts

(3) The amounts set out in column II of Schedule 2 are the maximum amounts payable in respect of a contravention of the designated provisions set out in column I.

Notice

(4) A notice referred to in subsection 7.7(1) of the Act must be in writing and must specify

  • (a) the particulars of the alleged contravention;
  • (b) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent has the option of paying the amount specified in the notice or filing with the Tribunal a request for a review of the alleged contravention or the amount of the penalty;
  • (c) that payment of the amount specified in the notice will be accepted by the Minister in satisfaction of the amount of the penalty for the alleged contravention and that no further proceedings under Part I of the Act will be taken against the person on whom the notice in respect of that contravention is served or to whom it is sent;
  • (d) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be provided with an opportunity consistent with procedural fairness and natural justice to present evidence before the Tribunal and make representations in relation to the alleged contravention if the person files a request for a review with the Tribunal; and
  • (e) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be considered to have committed the contravention set out in the notice if the person fails to pay the amount specified in the notice and fails to file a request for a review with the Tribunal within the prescribed period.

SUSPENDED PROVISIONS OF THE REGULATIONS

Subparagraph 401.05(3)(d)(i) of the Regulations

3. (1) The effect of subparagraph 401.05(3)(d)(i) of the Regulations is suspended.

Subpart 4 of Part VI of the Regulations

(2) The effect of Subpart 4 of Part VI of the Regulations is suspended and Schedule 1 applies.

REPEAL

4. Interim Order No. 5 Respecting Private Operators is repealed.

SCHEDULE 1
(Subsections 1(1) and (3) and 3(2))

SUBPART 4 — PRIVATE OPERATORS

Division I — Temporary Private Operator Certificate

Interpretation

604.01 (1) The following definitions apply in this Subpart.

“Association” means the Canadian Business Aviation Association. (Association)

“main base” means a location at which a private operator has personnel, aircraft and facilities for its operations and that is established as the principal place of business of the private operator. (base principale)

“PBN Manual” means ICAO Document 9613, entitled Performance-based Navigation (PBN) Manual, Third Edition, 2008. (manuel PBN)

Restricted Canada Air Pilot” means an aeronautical information publication, published under the authority of the Minister, that contains information on restricted instrument procedures for air operators, private operators, flight training unit operators and the Department of National Defence. (Canada Air Pilot restreint)

“sub-base” means a location at which a private operator positions aircraft and personnel and from which operational control is exercised in accordance with the private operator’s operational control system. (base secondaire)

“type of operation” means a day or night VFR or IFR operation. (type de vol)

(2) For the purpose of interpreting a document incorporated by reference into this Subpart, “should” and “must” shall be read to mean “shall”.

Application

604.02 (1) Subject to subsection (2), this Subpart applies in respect of a Canadian aircraft that is not operated in a commercial air service.

(2) This Subpart does not apply to an air operator that operates an aircraft in compliance with the requirements of Part VII if the aircraft is not operated as a commercial air service.

Prohibition

604.03 No person shall, without a temporary private operator certificate issued under section 604.05, operate any of the following Canadian aircraft for the purpose of transporting passengers or goods:

  • (a) a turbo-jet aeroplane; or
  • (b) a large aeroplane.

Application for Issuance of a Temporary Private Operator Certificate

604.04 An application for the issuance of a temporary private operator certificate shall contain the following information:

  • (a) the applicant’s legal name and its trade name, if any;
  • (b) the applicant’s contact information;
  • (c) the location of the applicant’s main base and its sub-bases, if any;
  • (d) a copy of the private operator certificate issued to the applicant by the Association and any operations specification set out in the certificate;
  • (e) any request for an operations specification authorizing the conduct of an operation referred to in Division IV or authorized by the Minister under that Division;
  • (f) the aircraft type, registration mark and serial number of each aircraft to be operated; and
  • (g) a copy of the private operator’s operations manual established for compliance with the private operator certificate issued by the Association.

Conditions of Issuance of a Temporary Private Operator Certificate

604.05 The Minister shall, on receipt of an application referred to in subsection 604.04, issue a temporary private operator certificate if the applicant demonstrates to the Minister that

  • (a) the applicant is the holder of a private operator certificate issued by the Association;
  • (b) the applicant complies with every condition specified in the certificate referred to in paragraph (a);
  • (c) the applicant is the registered owner of every aircraft that the applicant operates;
  • (d) every aircraft referred to in paragraph (c) is equipped for the area of operation and the type of operation;
  • (e) the applicant has crew members who are qualified for the area of operation and the type of operation;
  • (f) the applicant has personnel exercising the functions associated with the following positions:
    • (i) operations manager,
    • (ii) chief pilot, and
    • (iii) maintenance manager, if the applicant does not hold an approved maintenance organization (AMO) certificate;
  • (g) the applicant has a maintenance control system that meets the requirements of section 604.49; and
  • (h) the applicant is able to meet the requirements set out in Division IV in respect of an operations specification for which the applicant has made an application.

Application to Amend a Temporary Private Operator Certificate

604.06 A private operator shall submit an application to the Minister to amend its temporary private operator certificate if it intends to

  • (a) change its legal name or trade name;
  • (b) change its contact information;
  • (c) change the location of its main base or a sub-base;
  • (d) commence the operation of an aircraft that is not specified on the certificate;
  • (f) commence the operation of an aircraft in accordance with an operations specification referred to in Division IV; or
  • (g) discontinue the operation of an aircraft in accordance with an operations specification referred to in Division IV.
  • (e) discontinue the operation of an aircraft that is specified on the certificate;

Amendment of a Temporary Private Operator Certificate

604.07 The Minister shall, on receipt of an application referred to in section 604.06, issue an amended temporary private operator certificate if the applicant,

  • (a) in the case of a change referred to in paragraph 604.06(a), (b), (c), (e) or (g), provides the Minister with a description of the change;
  • (b) in the case of a change referred to in paragraph 604.06(d), provides the Minister with proof that
    • (i) the applicant is the registered owner of the aircraft and the aircraft is equipped for the area of operation and the type of operation,
    • (ii) the applicant has crew members who are qualified for the area of operation and the type of operation,
    • (iii) the applicant has personnel exercising the functions associated with the following positions:
      • (A) operations manager,
      • (B) chief pilot, and
      • (C) maintenance manager, if the applicant does not hold an approved maintenance organization (AMO) certificate, and
    • (iv) the applicant has a maintenance control system that meets the requirements of section 604.49; or
  • (c) in the case of a change referred to in paragraph 604.06(f), demonstrates to the Minister that the applicant is able to meet the requirements set out in Division IV.

Changes in Information Provided in an Application

604.08 A private operator shall notify the Minister of any change in the information contained in an application made under section 604.04 or 604.06 within five days after the day of the change.

Amendment of Private Operator’s Operations Manual

604.09 A private operator shall provide the Minister with a copy of its amended operations manual within five days after the day of the amendment.

Duties of a Private Operator

604.10 (1) A private operator shall

  • (a) appoint an operations manager, a chief pilot and a maintenance manager;
  • (b) ensure that no person is appointed to a position under paragraph (a) or remains in that position if, at the time of the person’s appointment or during their tenure, the person has a record of conviction for
    • (i) an offence under section 7.3 of the Act, or
    • (ii) two or more offences under the Regulations or this Interim Order not arising from a single occurrence;
  • (c) provide the operations manager and the maintenance manager with the financial and human resources necessary to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of the Regulations and this Interim Order; and
  • (d) authorize the maintenance manager to remove any aircraft from operation if the removal is justified because of non-compliance with the requirements of the Regulations or this Interim Order or because of a risk to the safety of the aircraft, persons or property.

(2) If the private operator holds an approved maintenance organization (AMO) certificate, the maintenance manager appointed under paragraph (1)(a) shall be the person responsible for maintenance appointed under paragraph 573.03(1)(a) of the Regulations.

Division II — Flight Operations

Operational Control System

604.11 (1) A private operator shall establish an operational control system that meets the requirements of the private operator’s operations and that is appropriate to the complexity of those operations and the area of operations.

(2) The operational control system shall include procedures for ensuring that

  • (a) all operational requirements specified in this Subpart have been met;
  • (b) each aircraft is operated within the weight and balance limits specified in the aircraft flight manual;
  • (c) the names of the persons on board an aircraft are recorded by the private operator; and
  • (d) search and rescue authorities are notified in a timely manner if an aircraft is overdue or missing.

(3) The operational control system shall, at a minimum, include a pilot’s self-dispatch policy that

  • (a) specifies flight planning requirements; and
  • (b) specifies the time that a flight crew member must inform the private operator of an aircraft’s departure and arrival, and the associated procedures for confirming the safe arrival of an aircraft at an unattended aerodrome during a VFR operation or when an IFR flight plan has been cancelled prior to landing.

(4) For the purposes of subsection (3), “pilot’s self-dispatch” has the same meaning as in subsection 400.01(1) of the Regulations.

(5) Documentation related to the operational control of a flight shall be retained by the private operator for at least 180 days following the day on which the flight occurs.

Instrument Approaches — Landing

604.12 No person shall terminate an instrument approach with a landing unless, immediately before landing, the pilot-in-command ascertains, by means of radio communication or visual inspection,

  • (a) the condition of the runway or surface of intended landing; and
  • (b) the wind direction and speed.

Division III — Flight Operations — Documents

Checklist

604.13 (1) A private operator shall provide every crew member, at his or her duty station, with the checklist referred to in paragraph 602.60(1)(a) of the Regulations, or with the part of that checklist that is necessary for the performance of the crew member’s duties.

(2) Every crew member shall follow the checklist, or the part of the checklist referred to in subsection (1), in the performance of his or her duties.

Aircraft Operating Manual and Standard Operating Procedures

604.14 (1) A private operator may establish an aircraft operating manual for the operation of its aircraft.

(2) An aircraft operating manual shall meet the following requirements:

  • (a) it shall contain aircraft operating procedures that are consistent with those contained in the aircraft flight manual;
  • (b) it shall contain, if the aircraft flight manual is not carried on board the aircraft, the aircraft performance data and limitations specified in that manual, and shall clearly identify them as aircraft flight manual requirements;
  • (c) it shall contain the private operator’s standard operating procedures, if any; and
  • (d) it shall identify the aircraft to which it relates.

Operational Flight Data Sheet

604.15 (1) No person shall conduct a take-off in an aircraft that is specified in a temporary private operator certificate unless an operational flight data sheet containing the following information is prepared:

  • (a) the date of the flight;
  • (b) the aircraft’s nationality mark and registration mark;
  • (c) the name of the pilot-in-command;
  • (d) the departure aerodrome;
  • (e) the destination aerodrome;
  • (f) the alternate aerodrome, if any;
  • (g) the estimated flight time;
  • (h) the fuel endurance;
  • (i) the weight of the fuel on board the aircraft;
  • (j) the zero fuel weight of the aircraft;
  • (k) the take-off weight of the aircraft;
  • (l) the number of persons on board the aircraft;
  • (m) the proposed time of departure; and
  • (n) the estimated time of arrival.

(2) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft referred to in subsection (1) shall, on completion of the flight, record on the operational flight data sheet the flight time, time of departure, time of arrival and aerodrome of arrival.

(3) The private operator shall retain a copy of the operational flight data sheet and the information provided under subsection (2) for at least 180 days.

Division IV — Flight Operations — Operations Specifications

Minimum Performance Capability of Long-Range Navigation Systems

604.16 (1) For the purposes of this Division, a long-range navigation system has the following performance capabilities:

  • (a) the standard deviation of the lateral track deviations is less than 6.3 nautical miles;
  • (b) the proportion of the total flight time that is spent by the aircraft at a distance of 30 or more nautical miles from the cleared track is less than 5.3 x 10-4; and
  • (c) the proportion of the total flight time that is spent by the aircraft at a distance of 50 to 70 nautical miles from the cleared track is less than 1.3 x 10-4.

(2) For the purposes of section 604.24, a GPS receiver is considered to be a long-range navigation system if it is installed in accordance with the requirements of Advisory Circular 20-138B, entitled Airworthiness Approval of Positioning and Navigation Systems, dated September 27, 2010 and published by the Federal Aviation Administration.

No Alternate Aerodrome — IFR Flight

604.17 (1) For the purposes of section 602.122 of the Regulations, a person may conduct an IFR flight where an alternate aerodrome has not been designated in the IFR flight plan or in the IFR flight itinerary if

  • (a) the estimated flight time is not more than six hours and the departure aerodrome is located in North America, Bermuda or the Caribbean islands;
  • (b) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate;
  • (c) the forecast or reported weather at the destination aerodrome, from one hour before until one hour after the estimated time of arrival, does not include
    • (i) conditions, including fog or precipitation, that restrict flight visibility to less than three miles,
    • (ii) a thunderstorm,
    • (iii) a ceiling of less than 1,000 feet above the FAF altitude and a ground visibility of less than three miles,
    • (iv) a ceiling of less than 1,500 feet above the minimum descent altitude and a ground visibility of less than six miles, or
    • (v) freezing rain, freezing drizzle or sleet;
  • (d) in the case of an aeroplane, the destination aerodrome
    • (i) has at least two runways that are
      • (A) operational,
      • (B) separate and not reciprocal directions of the same runway, and
      • (C) suitable for the aeroplane on the basis of the aircraft operating procedures, the aircraft performance data and limitations specified in the aircraft flight manual and the factors that affect the performance of the aeroplane, such as atmospheric and surface conditions, and
    • (ii) is equipped with an emergency electrical power supply to operate the equipment and facilities that are essential for a safe landing of the aeroplane in the event of a failure of the main electrical power supply; and
  • (e) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that
    • (i) the pilot-in-command
      • (A) monitors throughout the flight the weather at the destination aerodrome and at potential alternate aerodromes,
      • (B) identifies other destination aerodromes or alternate aerodromes if the requirements of paragraph (c) or (d) are no longer met, and
      • (C) amends the flight plan accordingly, and
    • (ii) the private operator meets the requirements of paragraph (b) and this paragraph.

(2) If the requirements of paragraphs (1)(a) to (e) are met, and regardless of the departure aerodrome, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft on a flight to a destination aerodrome in Canada may file a new IFR flight plan or a new IFR flight itinerary that does not include an alternate aerodrome when the aircraft is within six hours’ flight time of the destination aerodrome.

Take-off Minima

604.18 For the purposes of paragraph 602.126(1)(b) of the Regulations,

  • (a) a person may conduct a take-off in an aircraft when the reported RVR is at least 1,200 feet or the reported ground visibility is at least one quarter of a statute mile, up to the minimum visibility for take-off specified in the Canada Air Pilot, if
    • (i) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate,
    • (ii) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has received training in
      • (A) take-off alternate aerodrome requirements,
      • (B) pilot-in-command experience requirements,
      • (C) pilot-in-command responsibility for visibility and obstacle clearance requirements, and
      • (D) minimum aircraft and runway equipment requirements,
    • (iii) the pilot-in-command
      • (A) identifies any obstructions in the take-off path,
      • (B) determines — using the aircraft performance data and limitations specified in the aircraft flight manual — that the aircraft is, with the critical engine inoperative, able to
        • (I) safely clear those obstructions, and
        • (II) maintain at least the minimum enroute altitude to the take-off alternate aerodrome, and
      • (C) is satisfied that the RVR is at least 1,200 feet or the ground visibility is at least one quarter of a statute mile,
    • (iv) the runway is equipped with serviceable and functioning high-intensity runway lights, runway centre line lights or runway centre line markings that are visible to the pilot throughout the take-off run,
    • (v) the pilot-in-command and second-in-command attitude indicators provide a clear depiction of total aircraft attitude that includes the incorporation of pitch attitude index lines in appropriate increments up to 15° above and 15° below the reference line,
    • (vi) failure warning systems to immediately detect failures and malfunctions in attitude indicators, directional gyros and horizontal situation indicators are operative,
    • (vii) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has demonstrated to the Minister the ability to operate the aircraft in accordance with this paragraph, and
    • (viii) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of this section; and
  • (b) a person may conduct a take-off in an aircraft when the reported RVR is at least 600 feet but less than 1,200 feet if
    • (i) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary operator certificate,
    • (ii) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has received the following training:
      • (A) ground training in
        • (I) take-off alternate aerodrome requirements,
        • (II) pilot-in-command experience requirements,
        • (III) pilot-in-command responsibility for visibility and obstacle clearance requirements, and
        • (IV) minimum aircraft and runway equipment requirements, and
      • (B) full flight simulator training that includes
        • (I) one completed take-off at an RVR that is at least 600 feet but less than 1,200 feet, and
        • (II) one rejected take-off, at an RVR that is at least 600 feet but less than 1,200 feet, that includes an engine failure,
    • (iii) the pilot-in-command
      • (A) identifies any obstructions in the take-off path,
      • (B) determines — using the aircraft performance data and limitations specified in the aircraft flight manual — that the aircraft is, with the critical engine inoperative, able to
        • (I) safely clear those obstructions, and
        • (II) maintain at least the minimum enroute altitude to the take-off alternate aerodrome, and
      • (C) is satisfied that the RVR is at least 600 feet but less than 1,200 feet,
    • (iv) the runway is equipped with
      • (A) serviceable and functioning high-intensity runway lights, runway centre line lights and runway centre line markings that are visible to the pilot throughout the take-off run, and
      • (B) two RVR sensors that each show an RVR of at least 600 feet but less than 1,200 feet, one of which is situated at the approach end of the runway and the other at
        • (I) the mid-point of the runway, or
        • (II) the departure end of the runway, if the runway is equipped with three RVR sensors and the sensor situated at the mid-point is not serviceable,
    • (v) the pilot-in-command and second-in-command attitude indicators provide a clear depiction of total aircraft attitude that includes the incorporation of pitch attitude index lines in appropriate increments up to 15° above and 15° below the reference line,
    • (vi) failure warning systems to immediately detect failures and malfunctions in attitude indicators, directional gyros and horizontal situation indicators are operative,
    • (vii) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has demonstrated to the Minister the ability to operate the aircraft in accordance with this paragraph, and
    • (viii) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of this section.

RNPC Airspace

604.19 No person shall operate an aircraft on a high level fixed RNAV route in required navigation performance capability (RNPC) airspace unless

  • (a) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate;
  • (b) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has received training in
    • (i) normal operating procedures, including navigation system pre-flight data entry and periodic cross-checking of the system position display against the aircraft position,
    • (ii) the method of monitoring and cross-checking the navigation system that is coupled to the auto-pilot,
    • (iii) the action to take in the event of a discrepancy between navigation systems and the method of determining which is the most accurate or reliable system,
    • (iv) the contingency procedures for RNPC airspace,
    • (v) the action to take in the event of the failure of one or more navigation systems,
    • (vi) the procedure for manually updating navigation systems,
    • (vii) airborne emergency procedures, including re-alignment, if applicable,
    • (viii) the procedure for regaining track after a deliberate or accidental deviation from the cleared track, and
    • (ix) RNAV systems;
  • (c) the aircraft is equipped with at least two independent navigation systems, one of which is a long-range navigation system; and
  • (d) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of this section.

CMNPS and RNPC Airspace

604.20 No person shall operate an aircraft in Canadian minimum navigation performance specification (CMNPS) or required navigation performance capability (RNPC) airspace unless

  • (a) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate;
  • (b) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has received training in
    • (i) normal operating procedures, including long-range navigation system pre-flight data entry and periodic cross-checking of the system position display against the aircraft position,
    • (ii) the method of monitoring and cross-checking the long-range navigation system that is coupled to the auto-pilot,
    • (iii) the action to take in the event of a discrepancy between long-range navigation systems, and the method of determining which is the most accurate or reliable system,
    • (iv) the contingency procedures for CMNPS airspace or RNPC airspace, as applicable,
    • (v) the action to take in the event of the failure of one or more long-range navigation systems,
    • (vi) the procedure for manually updating long-range navigation systems,
    • (vii) airborne emergency procedures, including re-alignment, if applicable,
    • (viii) the procedure for regaining track after a deliberate or accidental deviation from the cleared track, and
    • (ix) RNAV systems;
  • (c) the aircraft is equipped with at least two independent long-range navigation systems or is operated as follows:
    • (i) in the case of an aircraft equipped only with the radio navigation equipment referred to in paragraph 605.18(j) of the Regulations, it is operated only on high level airways, and
    • (ii) in the case of an aircraft equipped with at least two independent navigation systems, one of which is a long-range navigation system, it is operated only in RNPC airspace on
      • (A) high level fixed RNAV routes,
      • (B) direct routes that begin and end within the reception range of ground-based navigation aids, or
      • (C) high level airways; and
  • (d) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of this section.

NAT-MNPS Airspace

604.21 (1) No person shall operate an aircraft in North Atlantic minimum navigation performance specification (NAT-MNPS) airspace in accordance with NAT-MNPS separation criteria unless

  • (a) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate;
  • (b) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has received training in
    • (i) normal operating procedures, including long-range navigation system pre-flight data entry and periodic cross-checking of the system position display against the aircraft position,
    • (ii) the method of monitoring and cross-checking the long-range navigation system that is coupled to the auto-pilot,
    • (iii) the action to take in the event of a discrepancy between long-range navigation systems, and the method of determining which is the most accurate or reliable system,
    • (iv) the contingency procedures for NAT-MNPS airspace,
    • (v) the action to take in the event of the failure of one or more long-range navigation systems,
    • (vi) the procedure for manually updating long-range navigation systems,
    • (vii) airborne emergency procedures, including re-alignment, if applicable,
    • (viii) the procedure for regaining track after a deliberate or accidental deviation from the cleared track, and
    • (ix) RNAV systems;
  • (c) subject to subsections (2) and (3), the aircraft is equipped with at least two independent long-range navigation systems; and
  • (d) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of this section.

(2) An aircraft that is equipped with only one long-range navigation system, or that has only one functioning long-range navigation system, is restricted to routes in NAT-MNPS airspace that are specified — in paragraph 1.4.1 of the North Atlantic MNPS Airspace Operations Manual, published by ICAO — as routes for aircraft equipped with only one such system.

(3) An aircraft that is not equipped with a long-range navigation system is restricted to routes in NAT-MNPS airspace that are specified — in paragraph 1.4.2 of the North Atlantic MNPS Airspace Operations Manual, published by ICAO — as routes for aircraft not equipped with such a system.

RVSM Airspace

604.22 No person shall operate an aircraft in RVSM airspace unless

  • (a) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate;
  • (b) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has received training in
    • (i) the floor, ceiling and horizontal boundaries of RVSM airspace,
    • (ii) rules on the exclusion of non-RVSM-compliant aircraft from the airspace,
    • (iii) the procedures to be followed by flight crew members with respect to
      • (A) pre-flight and in-flight altimeter checks,
      • (B) use of the automatic altitude control system,
      • (C) items on the minimum equipment list (MEL) that are applicable to RVSM operations,
      • (D) in-flight contingencies,
      • (E) weather deviation procedures,
      • (F) track offset procedures for wake turbulence,
      • (G) inconsequential collision-avoidance systems alerts, and
      • (H) pilot level-off call,
    • (iv) procedures in respect of non-RVSM-compliant aircraft required to carry out ferry flights, humanitarian flights or delivery flights, and
    • (v) the use of an Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS) and a Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS);
  • (c) the aircraft meets the requirements of paragraphs 8 and 9 of Advisory Circular 91-85, entitled Authorization of Aircraft and Operators for Flight in Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum Airspace — dated August 21, 2009 and published by the Federal Aviation Administration — and section 4.5 of NAT Doc 001, entitled Guidance and Information Material Concerning Air Navigation in the North Atlantic Region, published by ICAO;
  • (d) the private operator meets the requirements of paragraph 11 of that Advisory Circular and section 4.5 of that NAT Doc; and
  • (e) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of paragraph 11 of that Advisory Circular.

RNP 10 Separation Criteria

604.23 No person shall operate an aircraft in accordance with RNP 10 separation criteria unless

  • (a) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate;
  • (b) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has received training in
    • (i) flight planning for RNP 10 operations,
    • (ii) navigation performance requirements for RNP 10 operations,
    • (iii) enroute procedures for RNP 10 operations, and
    • (iv) the contingency procedures for RNP 10 operations;
  • (c) the aircraft is eligible in accordance with the criteria set out in section 1.3.3 of Chapter 1 of Part B of Volume II of the PBN Manual;
  • (d) the aircraft is equipped as specified in section 1.3.4 of that Chapter of the PBN Manual;
  • (e) the equipment referred to in paragraph (d) meets the standards set out in sections 1.3.4, 1.3.6.1, 1.3.9.1 and 1.3.11 of that Chapter of the PBN Manual;
  • (f) the private operator has performed the actions referred to in sections 1.3.3.2.4, 1.3.5, 1.3.7, 1.3.8 and 1.3.9.2 to 1.3.9.9 of that Chapter of the PBN Manual; and
  • (g) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of this section.

Instrument Approaches — Global Positioning System (GPS)

604.24 No person shall conduct, in an aircraft for which a private operator is responsible, an instrument approach using a GPS receiver unless

  • (a) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate;
  • (b) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has received the following training:
    • (i) if the private operator’s fleet of aircraft is equipped with more than one model of GPS receiver, training in the differences between the models, unless
      • (A) each model of GPS receiver has a user interface comparable to the user interface of the model of GPS receiver that the flight crew members have been trained on, or
      • (B) the flight crew members use only one model of GPS receiver,
    • (ii) hands-on training using
      • (A) a desk-top version, or a simulator, of the model of GPS receiver to be used,
      • (B) a computer-based simulation of the model of GPS receiver to be used, or
      • (C) the GPS receiver to be used, while in a static aircraft,
    • (iii) in the case of a GPS receiver that is not integrated with the flight management system (a GPS receiver installed on the instrument panel),
      • (A) training in
        • (I) the GPS and its theory of operation,
        • (II) GPS components and aircraft equipment,
        • (III) the composition of the satellite constellation,
        • (IV) the minimum number of satellites required for two- and three-dimensional navigation,
        • (V) the basic concept of satellite ranging,
        • (VI) the factors affecting the accuracy of GPS signals,
        • (VII) the World Geodetic System 1984 datum and the effect of using any other datum,
        • (VIII) the human factors associated with the use of the GPS and how errors can be reduced or eliminated,
        • (IX) the private operator’s standard operating procedures, if any, for the use of the GPS, and
        • (X) the private operator’s procedures for reporting GPS problems and GPS receiver database errors,
      • (B) training in the performance of the following operational tasks:
        • (I) selecting the appropriate operational mode,
        • (II) recalling categories of information contained in the GPS receiver database,
        • (III) predicting the availability of receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM),
        • (IV) entering and verifying user-defined waypoints,
        • (V) recalling and verifying GPS receiver database waypoints,
        • (VI) interpreting GPS navigational displays, including latitude, longitude, distance and bearing to waypoint, course deviation indicator, desired track, track made good, actual track and cross-track error,
        • (VII) intercepting and maintaining GPS-defined tracks,
        • (VIII) determining the navigation information necessary for the conduct of the flight, including ground speed and the estimated time of arrival at the next waypoint and at destination,
        • (IX) indicating waypoint passage,
        • (X) using the “direct to” function,
        • (XI) linking the enroute portion of a flight plan to the GPS approach,
        • (XII) conducting standard instrument departures, standard terminal area arrivals, terminal area procedures and holds,
        • (XIII) retrieving, verifying and conducting GPS stand-alone approaches, and
        • (XIV) conducting GPS missed approaches,
      • (C) training in the performance of the following operational and serviceability checks:
        • (I) the currency of the database and whether it covers the area of operation,
        • (II) GPS receiver serviceability,
        • (III) RAIM status,
        • (IV) sensitivity of the course deviation indicator,
        • (V) availability of position indication, and
        • (VI) number of satellites acquired and, if the GPS receiver provides it, satellite position information, and
      • (D) training to recognize and take appropriate action in response to GPS receiver warnings and messages,
    • (iv) in the case of a GPS receiver integrated with the flight management system (GPS/FMS),
      • (A) training in
        • (I) the GPS and its theory of operation,
        • (II) GPS components and aircraft equipment,
        • (III) the composition of the satellite constellation,
        • (IV) the minimum number of satellites required for two- and three-dimensional navigation,
        • (V) the basic concept of satellite ranging,
        • (VI) the factors affecting the accuracy of GPS signals,
        • (VII) the World Geodetic System 1984 datum and the effect of using any other datum, and
        • (VIII) the human factors associated with the use of the GPS and how errors can be reduced or eliminated,
      • (B) training in the performance of the following operational tasks:
        • (I) predicting the availability of the RAIM,
        • (II) linking the enroute portion of a flight plan to the GPS approach,
        • (III) conducting GPS stand-alone approaches, and
        • (IV) conducting GPS missed approaches,
      • (C) training in the performance of the following serviceability checks:
        • (I) RAIM status,
        • (II) sensitivity of the course deviation indicator, and
        • (III) number of satellites acquired and, if the GPS provides it, satellite position information, and
      • (D) training to recognize and take appropriate action in response to GPS receiver warnings and messages, and
    • (v) in-flight training
      • (A) in the use of the GPS for approaches and other associated duties for each crew position that the flight crew member is to occupy,
      • (B) in
        • (I) an aircraft, or
        • (II) a full flight simulator that is equipped with the same model of GPS receiver that is installed in the private operator’s aircraft or a model with a user interface comparable to the user interface of that GPS receiver, and
      • (C) provided by a pilot who
        • (I) has received training on the same model of GPS receiver that is installed in the private operator’s aircraft or a model with a user interface comparable to the user interface of that GPS receiver, and
        • (II) has demonstrated, to the person who provided the training referred to in subclause (I), proficiency in the use of the same model of GPS receiver that is installed in the private operator’s aircraft or a model with a user interface comparable to the user interface of that GPS receiver;
  • (c) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has demonstrated to the Minister the ability to conduct an instrument approach using a GPS receiver in accordance with this section;
  • (d) the coverage area of the GPS receiver database is compatible with the area of operation and the type of operation to be conducted by the private operator;
  • (e) the private operator has established procedures to ensure that
    • (i) the GPS receiver database is updated so that it remains current, and
    • (ii) the flight crew members communicate any information in respect of GPS receiver database errors to the private operator’s other personnel, to the GPS receiver database provider and to the Minister;
  • (f) conducting an instrument approach using a GPS receiver does not adversely affect the duties and responsibilities of the flight crew members from the moment that the aircraft turns inbound on the final approach course to either the moment that it lands or the moment that it is established in the climb configuration on a missed approach;
  • (g) if the aircraft can be operated by two flight crew members, the GPS course deviation and distance displays are located at each pilot station and within the primary field of vision of the flight crew member who occupies the pilot station;
  • (h) if the aircraft can be operated by one flight crew member, the GPS course deviation and distance displays are located at the pilot station normally occupied by the pilot-in-command and within the primary field of vision of the flight crew member;
  • (i) if the aircraft can be operated by one flight crew member, but is operated by two flight crew members,
    • (i) the control display unit that is linked to the GPS receiver is centrally located in relation to the two pilot stations and provides navigation information that is visible to the pilot-not-flying, or
    • (ii) the GPS course deviation and distance displays are located at each pilot station and within the primary field of vision of the flight crew member who occupies the pilot station;
  • (j) the private operator has specified which pilot station the pilot flying and the pilot-not-flying are required to occupy during the conduct of an instrument approach using a GPS receiver, taking into account the location and model of the GPS receiver;
  • (k) in the case of an aircraft in which both the GPS guidance information and the distance measuring equipment (DME) information appears on the horizontal situation indicator (HSI) display, the private operator has established GPS approach procedures making it possible for flight crew members to deactivate the DME if it is not required for conducting an instrument approach using a GPS receiver;
  • (l) the private operator has established procedures for programming the GPS receiver to ensure that
    • (i) approach waypoints are verified against an aeronautical information publication,
    • (ii) the approach mode is armed, and
    • (iii) the cockpit NAV source switches and the automated flight control system guidance source switches are selected and verified;
  • (m) the private operator has established procedures for responding to GPS receiver warnings and messages, including RAIM warnings; and
  • (n) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of this section.

Instrument Approaches — Restricted Canada Air Pilot

604.25 Despite subsection 602.128(1) of the Regulations, a person may conduct, in an aircraft, an instrument approach that is not in accordance with an instrument procedure specified in the Canada Air Pilot for an aerodrome, if

  • (a) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate;
  • (b) in the case of a restricted instrument procedure specified in the Restricted Canada Air Pilot, the person conducts the approach in accordance with the requirements set out in that document in respect of the procedure; and
  • (c) in the case of a specialized restricted instrument procedure specified in the Restricted Canada Air Pilot,
    • (i) the person conducts the approach in accordance with the requirements set out in that document in respect of the procedure,
    • (ii) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has received the training necessary to mitigate the risks or hazards associated with that procedure with respect to the safety of the aircraft, persons or property,
    • (iii) the person conducts the approach in accordance with the operational procedures
      • (A) established by the Minister in accordance with criteria set out in a document approved by the civil aviation authority of a foreign state or by ICAO in respect of the specialized restricted instrument procedure, or
      • (B) established by the Minister taking into account the following criteria:
        • (I) the environmental conditions at the aerodrome where the approach is to be conducted,
        • (II) the nature of the risks or hazards to the safety of the aircraft, persons or property and the measures that are necessary to mitigate or remove those risks or hazards, and
        • (III) the level of safety provided by those operational procedures,
    • (iv) the aircraft meets the requirements specified in the temporary private operator certificate for conducting the approach,
    • (v) the private operator meets the requirements specified in the temporary private operator certificate for conducting the approach, and
    • (vi) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of this section.

Terminal and Enroute Area Navigation Operations (RNAV 1 and RNAV 2)

604.26 No person shall operate an aircraft in accordance with separation criteria, terrain clearance criteria and any other criteria in respect of RNAV 1 or RNAV 2 operations unless

  • (a) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate;
  • (b) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has received training in
    • (i) pre-flight procedures for initialisation, loading and verification of the area navigation system,
    • (ii) the normal operation of the area navigation system,
    • (iii) procedures for manually updating the area navigation system’s position,
    • (iv) the method of monitoring and cross-checking the area navigation system,
    • (v) the operation of the area navigation system in the compass unreliability area,
    • (vi) malfunction procedures,
    • (vii) terminal area procedures,
    • (viii) waypoint symbology, plotting procedures and record-keeping duties and practices,
    • (ix) timekeeping procedures,
    • (x) post-flight performance checks,
    • (xi) flight planning applicable to RNAV 1 or RNAV 2 operations,
    • (xii) navigation performance requirements applicable to RNAV 1 or RNAV 2 operations,
    • (xiii) enroute procedures applicable to RNAV 1 or RNAV 2 operations, and
    • (xiv) contingency procedures applicable to RNAV 1 or RNAV 2 operations;
  • (c) the aircraft is eligible in accordance with the criteria set out in section 3.3.2.4 of Chapter 3 of Part B of Volume II of the PBN Manual;
  • (d) the aircraft is equipped as specified in section 3.3.3 of that Chapter of the PBN Manual;
  • (e) the equipment referred to in paragraph (d) meets the standards set out in sections 3.3.4.1 and 3.3.6 of that Chapter of the PBN Manual;
  • (f) the private operator has performed the actions referred to in sections 3.3.2.5.5, 3.3.4.1.1, 3.3.4.1.3 to 3.3.4.1.5 and 3.3.4.2 to 3.3.4.5 of that Chapter of the PBN Manual;
  • (g) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has demonstrated to the Minister the ability to operate the aircraft in accordance with this section; and
  • (h) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of this section.

RNP 4 Separation Criteria

604.27 No person shall operate an aircraft in accordance with RNP 4 separation criteria unless

  • (a) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate;
  • (b) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has received the training referred to in paragraph 604.26(b);
  • (c) the aircraft is eligible in accordance with the criteria set out in section 1.3.2.3 of Chapter 1 of Part C of Volume II of the PBN Manual;
  • (d) the aircraft is equipped as specified in sections 1.3.3.1, 1.3.4.2 and 1.3.4.3.1 of that Chapter of the PBN Manual;
  • (e) the equipment referred to in paragraph (d) meets the standards set out in sections 1.3.3.2, 1.3.3.3 to 1.3.3.7 and 1.3.6.1 of that Chapter of the PBN Manual;
  • (f) the private operator has performed the actions referred to in sections 1.3.2.4.6, 1.3.4.1, 1.3.4.3.2 to 1.3.4.3.4, 1.3.6.2 and 1.3.6.3 of that Chapter of the PBN Manual; and
  • (g) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of this section.

RNAV 5 Separation Criteria

604.28 No person shall operate an aircraft in accordance with RNAV 5 separation criteria unless

  • (a) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate;
  • (b) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has received the training referred to in paragraph 604.26(b);
  • (c) the aircraft is eligible in accordance with the criteria set out in section 2.3.2.4 of Chapter 2 of Part B of Volume II of the PBN Manual;
  • (d) the aircraft is equipped as specified in the portion of section 2.3.3 of that Chapter of the PBN Manual before section 2.3.3.1;
  • (e) the equipment referred to in paragraph (d) meets the standards set out in sections 2.3.3.1 to 2.3.3.3 of that Chapter of the PBN Manual;
  • (f) the private operator has performed the actions referred to in sections 2.3.2.5.6 and 2.3.4 of that Chapter of the PBN Manual; and
  • (g) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of this section.

Precision Approaches — CAT II and CAT III

604.29 No person shall conduct a CAT II or a CAT III precision approach in an aircraft unless

  • (a) the requirements of section 602.128 of the Regulations are met;
  • (b) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate;
  • (c) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has demonstrated to the Minister the ability to operate the aircraft in accordance with this section; and
  • (d) the private operator’s operations manual contains proced-ures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of this section.

Operations Specifications Authorized by the Minister

604.30 (1) No person shall conduct, in an aircraft, an operation in respect of an operations specification that is not set out in sections 604.17 to 604.29 unless

  • (a) the private operator responsible for the aircraft is authorized to do so in its temporary private operator certificate;
  • (b) the Minister has authorized the operations specification in accordance with subsection (3);
  • (c) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has received the training specified by the Minister under subsection (2);
  • (d) every flight crew member on board the aircraft has demonstrated to the Minister the ability to conduct the operation in accordance with the technical requirements and to take the measures that are necessary to manage or mitigate the risks in respect of that operation; and
  • (e) the private operator’s operations manual contains procedures to ensure that the private operator meets the requirements of this subsection.

(2) The Minister shall specify the training referred to in paragraph (1)(c) taking into account

  • (a) any training that is recommended by the civil aviation authority of a foreign state or by ICAO in respect of an operations specification;
  • (b) the risks and hazards associated with the operations specification with respect to the safety of the aircraft, persons or property; and
  • (c) the level of safety required by the operation.

(3) The Minister shall authorize an operations specification that is not set out in sections 604.17 to 604.29 if

  • (a) the operations specification is subject to
    • (i) technical requirements established by the civil aviation authority of a foreign state or by ICAO, or
    • (ii) a third party submission in respect of technical requirements and risk mitigation measures;
  • (b) in the case referred to in subparagraph (a)(i), the adoption of the operations specification is necessary for the conduct of flights abroad and in Canada by private operators and those flights can be conducted in a safe manner; and
  • (c) in the case referred to in subparagraph (a)(ii), technical requirements and risk mitigation measures are sufficient to ensure the safety of the flights to be conducted by private operators and will not have an adverse effect on aviation safety.

Division V — Flight Operations — Passengers

Flight Attendants

604.31 (1) Subject to subsection (2), no person shall conduct a take-off in an aircraft that is specified in a temporary private operator certificate and that has more than 12 passengers on board unless the crew includes one flight attendant for each unit of 40 passengers or for each portion of such a unit.

(2) A flight attendant is not required on board an aircraft with 13 to 19 passengers if

  • (a) the aircraft is equipped with a pilot-in-command station and a second-in-command station and is operated by a pilot-in-command and a second-in-command;
  • (b) the passenger cabin is readily accessible from the flight deck; and
  • (c) the flight crew members are able to exercise supervisory control over the passengers during flight by visual and aural means.

Cabin Safety

604.32 (1) In the case of an aircraft that is specified in a temporary private operator certificate, no person shall move the aircraft on the surface, direct that the aircraft be moved or conduct a take-off in the aircraft unless

  • (a) safety belts are adjusted and fastened in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(a) of the Regulations, infants are held in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(b) of the Regulations and persons using child restraint systems are secured in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(c) of the Regulations;
  • (b) subject to subsection (5), seat backs are secured in the upright position;
  • (c) chair tables are stowed;
  • (d) carry-on baggage is stowed; and
  • (e) no seat located at an emergency exit is occupied by a passenger whose presence in that seat could adversely affect the safety of passengers or crew members during an evacuation, including by a passenger who has not been informed as to how that exit operates.

(2) No person shall conduct a landing in an aircraft that is specified in a temporary private operator certificate unless

  • (a) passengers have been directed to
    • (i) adjust and fasten their safety belts in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(a) of the Regulations, hold infants in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(b) of the Regulations and secure persons using child restraint systems in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(c) of the Regulations,
    • (ii) subject to subsection (5), secure their seat backs in the upright position,
    • (iii) stow their chair tables, and
    • (iv) stow their carry-on baggage; and
  • (b) if a seat located at an emergency exit is occupied by a passenger whose presence in that seat could adversely affect the safety of passengers or crew members during an evacuation, the passenger has been directed to move to another seat.

(3) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is specified in a temporary private operator certificate shall, in the event of an emergency and if time and circumstances permit,

  • (a) direct passengers to
    • (i) adjust and fasten their safety belts in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(a) of the Regulations, hold infants in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(b) of the Regulations and secure persons using child restraint systems in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(c) of the Regulations,
    • (ii) subject to subsection (5), secure their seat backs in the upright position,
    • (iii) stow their chair tables,
    • (iv) stow their carry-on baggage,
    • (v) review the safety features card and assume the brace position until the aircraft stops moving, and
    • (vi) in the event of an emergency over water, don their life preservers; and
  • (b) if a seat located at an emergency exit is occupied by a passenger whose presence in that seat could adversely affect the safety of passengers or crew members during an evacuation, direct the passenger to move to another seat.

(4) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is specified in a temporary private operator certificate shall, if the “fasten safety belt” sign is turned on during the flight, direct passengers to

  • (a) adjust and fasten their safety belts in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(a) of the Regulations, hold infants in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(b) of the Regulations and secure persons using child restraint systems in accordance with paragraph 605.26(1)(c) of the Regulations; and
  • (b) stow their carry-on baggage.

(5) The seat of a passenger who is certified by a physician as unable to sit upright may remain in the reclining position during movement on the surface, take-off and landing if

  • (a) the passenger is seated in a location that would not restrict the evacuation of the aircraft;
  • (b) the passenger is not seated in a row that is next to or immediately in front of an emergency exit; and
  • (c) the seat immediately behind the passenger’s seat is vacant.

Fuelling with Passengers on Board

604.33 (1) Despite section 602.09 of the Regulations, a person may permit the fuelling of an aircraft that is specified in a temporary private operator certificate and that has passengers on board — or that has passengers embarking or disembarking — if

  • (a) in order for persons on board the aircraft to be provided with prompt notification of a situation that could threaten their safety, two-way communication is maintained between the ground personnel who supervise the fuelling and a person on board the aircraft who has received training in respect of emergency evacuation procedures for that type of aircraft;
  • (b) in respect of an aircraft that is an aeroplane,
    • (i) no engine is running unless it is equipped with a propeller brake and that brake is set, and
    • (ii) the aircraft flight manual refers to an engine that has a propeller brake as an auxiliary power unit;
  • (c) no ground power generator or other electrical ground power supply is being connected to or disconnected from the aircraft;
  • (d) no combustion heater installed on the aircraft is being used;
  • (e) every combustion heater used in the vicinity of the aircraft has a marking, applied by the manufacturer, indicating that it is manufactured to Canadian Standards Association (CSA) or Underwriters’ Laboratories of Canada (ULC) standards;
  • (f) no high-energy-emitting equipment, including high-frequency radios and airborne weather radar, is being operated unless the aircraft flight manual contains procedures for its use during fuelling and those procedures are followed;
  • (g) no aircraft battery is being removed or being installed;
  • (h) no external battery charger is being operated or is being connected to or disconnected from an aircraft battery;
  • (i) no auxiliary power unit having an efflux that discharges into the fuelling safety zone — which extends three metres (10 feet) radially from the filling and venting points on the aircraft and from the fuelling equipment — is started after filler caps are removed or fuelling connections are made;
  • (j) no auxiliary power unit that is stopped is restarted until the flow of fuel has ceased, unless the aircraft flight manual establishes procedures for restarting it during fuelling and those procedures are followed;
  • (k) no tool that is likely to produce a spark or electric arc is being used;
  • (l) no photographic equipment is being used within three metres (10 feet) of the filling or venting points on the aircraft or the fuelling equipment;
  • (m) fuelling is suspended if there is a lightning discharge within eight kilometres of the aerodrome;
  • (n) the fuelling is carried out in accordance with the aircraft manufacturer’s instructions;
  • (o) the aircraft emergency lighting system, if any, is armed or on;
  • (p) ”no smoking” signs, if any, on board the aircraft are illuminated;
  • (q) no passenger is operating a portable electronic device or smoking or otherwise producing a source of ignition;
  • (r) two exits — one of which is the door through which passengers embarked — are clear and are available for immediate use by passengers and crew members in the event of an evacuation;
  • (s) the escape route from each of the exits referred to in paragraph (r) is clear and is available for immediate use by passengers and crew members in the event of an evacuation;
  • (t) a person who is authorized by the private operator to suspend fuelling is on board the aircraft and is ready to direct the suspension of fuelling if a requirement of this subsection ceases to be met;
  • (u) a means of evacuation is in place at the door used for embarking and disembarking passengers, is free of obstruction and is available for immediate use by passengers and crew members;
  • (v) the person on board the aircraft who is referred to in paragraph (a) is ready to initiate and direct an evacuation and is at or near the door referred to in paragraph (u); and
  • (w) the embarkation door is open, unless
    • (i) a crew member determines that, for climatic reasons, it is desirable to close it,
    • (ii) a crew member is on board the aircraft, and
    • (iii) the door
      • (A) opens inward or can be fully opened to the exterior without repositioning the loading stairs or stand,
      • (B) is latched, if that is necessary in order to keep it closed, and
      • (C) is not locked.

(2) The person referred to in paragraph (1)(t) shall direct the suspension of fuelling if a requirement of subsection (1) ceases to be met.

Passenger Briefings

604.34 (1) Despite section 602.89 of the Regulations, no person shall conduct a take-off in an aircraft that is specified in a temporary private operator certificate unless passengers are given a safety briefing — orally by a crew member, or by audio or audiovisual means — that contains the following information:

  • (a) when and where carry-on baggage is to be stowed;
  • (b) when and how to fasten, adjust and release safety belts and, if any, shoulder harnesses;
  • (c) when seat backs are to be secured in the upright position and chair tables are to be stowed;
  • (d) the location of emergency exits and, in the case of a passenger seated next to one, how that exit operates;
  • (e) the location and purpose of the safety features card;
  • (f) the requirement to comply with the instructions given by crew members and with the “fasten safety belt” and “no smoking” signs, and the location of those signs;
  • (g) the location of the emergency equipment required under sections 602.62 and 602.63 of the Regulations, and under subsections 604.44(1) and (2) and section 604.45, and how to access that equipment;
  • (h) the portable electronic devices that may be used and when they may be used;
  • (i) the location and operation of the passenger oxygen system, if any, including
    • (i) the location of the masks and a demonstration of their use,
    • (ii) the actions to be performed by the passenger in order to
      • (A) obtain a mask,
      • (B) activate the flow of oxygen, and
      • (C) don and secure the mask, and
    • (iii) the requirement for a passenger to don and secure the passenger’s own mask before assisting another passenger with his or her mask;
  • (j) the use of life preservers, including how to remove them from their packaging, how to don them and when to inflate them; and
  • (k) when and where smoking is prohibited.

(2) No person shall permit passengers to disembark from an aircraft that is specified in a temporary private operator certificate unless the passengers are given a safety briefing — orally by a crew member, or by audio or audiovisual means — that contains the following information:

  • (a) the safest route for passengers to take in order to move away from the aircraft; and
  • (b) the hazards, if any, associated with the aircraft, including the location of Pitot tubes, propellers, rotors and engine intakes.

(3) If the safety briefing referred to in subsection (1) is not sufficient for a passenger — because of his or her physical, sensory or comprehension limitations or because the passenger is responsible for another person on board the aircraft — the passenger shall, subject to subsection (4), be given a safety briefing that consists of the following:

  • (a) communication of the elements of the safety briefing referred to in subsection (1)
    • (i) that the passenger is not able to receive during that briefing or by referring to the safety features card, and
    • (ii) that are necessary for the safety of the persons on board the aircraft;
  • (b) communication of
    • (i) the most appropriate brace position for the passenger given the passenger’s condition, injury or stature and the orientation and pitch of his or her seat, and
    • (ii) where the passenger’s service animal, if any, is to be located;
  • (c) in the case of a mobility-impaired passenger who would need assistance in order to move to an exit in the event of an emergency, communication of
    • (i) the most appropriate exit for the passenger to use,
    • (ii) the assistance that the passenger would require to reach that exit,
    • (iii) the most appropriate means to provide that assistance,
    • (iv) the most appropriate route to that exit, and
    • (v) the most appropriate time to begin to move to that exit;
  • (d) in the case of a visually impaired passenger,
    • (i) a tactile familiarization with
      • (A) the equipment that the passenger may be required to use in the event of an emergency, and
      • (B) if requested, the exits, and
    • (ii) communication of
      • (A) where the passenger’s cane, if any, is to be stored,
      • (B) the number of rows of seats separating the passenger’s seat from the closest exit and from the alternate exit, and
      • (C) the features of those exits;
  • (e) in the case of a passenger who is responsible for another person on board the aircraft, communication of
    • (i) if the passenger is responsible for an infant,
      • (A) the requirement to fasten the passenger’s safety belt — and shoulder harness, if any — without securing the infant in that safety belt or shoulder harness,
      • (B) how to hold the infant during take-off and landing,
      • (C) how to use the child restraint system, if any,
      • (D) how to place and secure the oxygen mask on the infant’s face,
      • (E) the most appropriate brace position, and
      • (F) the location of the infant’s life preserver, how to remove it from its location and its packaging, how to assist the infant with donning it and when to inflate it, and
    • (ii) if the passenger is responsible for any other person,
      • (A) how to assist that person with donning and securing his or her oxygen mask, and
      • (B) how to use that person’s personal restraint system, if any, on board the aircraft; and
  • (f) in the case of an unaccompanied minor, communication of the need to pay close attention to the safety briefing.

(4) A passenger may decline the safety briefing referred to in subsection (3).

Safety Features Card

604.35 A private operator shall, before the safety briefing referred to in subsection 604.34(1), provide each passenger at his or her seat with a safety features card that shows the type of aircraft and that contains only safety information in respect of the aircraft, including

  • (a) when and where smoking is prohibited;
  • (b) when and how to fasten, adjust and release safety belts and, if any, shoulder harnesses;
  • (c) when and where carry-on baggage is to be stowed;
  • (d) the positioning of seats, securing of seat backs in the upright position and stowage of chair tables for take-off and landing;
  • (e) the location and operation of the passenger oxygen system, if any, including
    • (i) the location of the masks and a description of their use,
    • (ii) the actions to be performed by the passenger in order to
      • (A) obtain a mask,
      • (B) activate the flow of oxygen, and
      • (C) don and secure the mask, and
    • (iii) the requirement for a passenger to don and secure the passenger’s own mask before assisting another passenger with his or her mask;
  • (f) the location of first aid kits;
  • (g) the location of hand-held fire extinguishers that are accessible to passengers;
  • (h) the location of emergency locator transmitters;
  • (i) the location of survival equipment and how to access that equipment;
  • (j) passenger brace positions
    • (i) for each type of seat and passenger restraint system, and
    • (ii) for an adult who is holding an infant;
  • (k) the location, operation and use of each emergency exit, including whether it is unusable in a ditching because of aircraft configuration;
  • (l) the safest route for passengers to take in order to move away from the aircraft in the event of an emergency;
  • (m) the attitude of the aircraft while floating, as determined by the aircraft manufacturer;
  • (n) the location of life preservers, how to remove them from their packaging, how they are to be donned — by adults, by children aged two years or older and by infants — and when to inflate them;
  • (o) the location, removal and use of flotation devices and of life rafts, if any; and
  • (p) the form, function, colour and location of the floor proximity emergency escape path markings, if any.

Division VI — Flight Time and Flight Duty Time

Flight Time Limits

604.36 (1) No private operator shall assign flight time to a flight crew member — and no flight crew member shall accept such an assignment — if the flight crew member’s total flight time in all flights conducted under this Subpart, or Part IV or Part VII of the Regulations, would, as a result, exceed

  • (a) 1,200 hours in a period of 12 consecutive months;
  • (b) 300 hours in a period of 90 consecutive days;
  • (c) 120 hours in a period of 30 consecutive days; or
  • (d) 8 hours in a period of 24 consecutive hours, if the assignment is for a single-pilot IFR flight.

(2) If a flight crew’s flight duty time is extended under section 604.39, each flight crew member accumulates, for the purposes of subsection (1), the total flight time for the flight or the total flight time for the series of flights, as the case may be.

Flight Duty Time Limits and Rest Periods

604.37 (1) Subject to sections 604.38 to 604.40, no private operator shall assign flight duty time to a flight crew member — and no flight crew member shall accept such an assignment — if the flight crew member’s flight duty time would, as a result, exceed

  • (a) 14 consecutive hours in any period of 24 consecutive hours; or
  • (b) 15 consecutive hours in any period of 24 consecutive hours, if
    • (i) the flight crew member’s total flight time in the previous 30 consecutive days does not exceed 70 hours, or
    • (ii) the rest period before the flight is at least 24 hours.

(2) A private operator shall ensure that, prior to reporting for flight duty, a flight crew member is provided with the minimum rest period and with any additional rest period required by this Division.

(3) A flight crew member shall use the following periods to be adequately rested prior to reporting for flight duty:

  • (a) the minimum rest period provided in accordance with subsection (2);
  • (b) any additional rest period required by this Division; and
  • (c) any period with no assigned duties provided in accordance with section 604.42.

Split Flight Duty Time

604.38 Flight duty time may be extended by one-half the length of the rest period, to a maximum of four hours, if

  • (a) before a flight crew member reports for the first flight or reports as a flight crew member on standby, as the case may be, the private operator provides the flight crew member with notice of the extension of the flight duty time;
  • (b) the private operator provides the flight crew member with a rest period of at least four consecutive hours in suitable accommodation; and
  • (c) the flight crew member’s next minimum rest period is increased by an amount of time at least equal to the length of the extension of the flight duty time.

Extension of Flight Duty Time

604.39 If a flight crew is augmented by at least one flight crew member, if there is a balanced distribution of flight deck duty time and rest periods among the flight crew members, and if the next minimum rest period is at least equal to the length of the preceding flight duty time, the flight crew’s flight duty time may be extended

  • (a) to 17 hours with a maximum flight deck duty time of 12 hours, if a flight relief facility-seat is provided; and
  • (b) to 20 hours with a maximum flight deck duty time of 14 hours, if a flight relief facility-bunk is provided.

Unforeseen Operational Circumstances

604.40 (1) Flight duty time may be extended by up to three hours if

  • (a) the pilot-in-command, after consultation with the other flight crew members, considers it safe to do so;
  • (b) the flight duty time is extended as a result of unforeseen operational circumstances;
  • (c) the next minimum rest period is increased by an amount of time at least equal to the length of the extension of the flight duty time; and
  • (d) the pilot-in-command notifies the private operator of the unforeseen operational circumstances and of the length of the extension of the flight duty time.

(2) The private operator shall retain a copy of the notification for five years.

Delayed Reporting Time

604.41 A flight crew member’s flight duty time starts three hours after the flight crew member’s scheduled reporting time if

  • (a) the flight crew member is notified of the delay at least two hours before the scheduled reporting time; and
  • (b) the delay is more than three hours.

Time with no Assigned Duties

604.42 No private operator shall assign duties to a flight crew member — and no flight crew member shall accept such an assignment — unless the private operator provides the flight crew member with one of the following periods with no assigned duties:

  • (a) at least 36 consecutive hours in each period of seven consecutive days; or
  • (b) at least 3 consecutive calendar days in each period of 17 consecutive days.

Rest Period — Flight Crew Member Positioning

604.43 If a flight crew member is required by a private operator to travel for the purpose of positioning after the completion of flight duty time, the private operator shall provide the flight crew member with an additional rest period at least equal to one-half the time spent for that purpose that is in excess of the flight duty time referred to in paragraphs 604.37(1)(a) and (b).

Division VII — Emergency Equipment

Survival Equipment

604.44 (1) No person shall operate over land an aircraft that is specified in a temporary private operator certificate, other than an aircraft referred to in subsection 602.61(2) of the Regulations, unless there is carried on board a survival manual that contains information about how to survive on the ground and how to use the survival equipment carried on board for the purposes of subsection 602.61(1) of the Regulations.

(2) Despite subparagraph 602.63(6)(c)(iii) of the Regulations, a survival kit shall contain a pyrotechnic signalling device, signalling mirror and dye marker for visually signalling distress.

(3) In addition to meeting the requirements of paragraph 602.63(6)(c) of the Regulations, the survival kit shall contain

  • (a) a radar reflector;
  • (b) a life raft repair kit;
  • (c) a bailing bucket and sponge;
  • (d) a whistle;
  • (e) a waterproof flashlight;
  • (f) a two-day supply of potable water — based on 500 millilitres per person per day and calculated using the overload capacity of the life raft — or a means of desalting or distilling salt water that can provide 500 millilitres of potable water per person per day;
  • (g) a waterproof survival manual that contains information about how to survive at sea; and
  • (h) a first aid kit that contains antiseptic swabs, burn dressing compresses, bandages and motion sickness pills.

First Aid Kits

604.45 (1) Despite paragraph 602.60(1)(h) of the Regulations, no person shall conduct a take-off in an aircraft that is specified in a temporary private operator certificate, and that is configured as follows, unless there is carried on board the corresponding number of first aid kits, each containing the supplies and equipment set out in the Aviation Occupational Safety and Health Regulations for a Type A first aid kit:

  • (a) configured for 20 to 50 passenger seats, one kit;
  • (b) configured for 51 to 150 passenger seats, two kits;
  • (c) configured for 151 to 250 passenger seats, three kits; and
  • (d) configured for 251 or more passenger seats, four kits.

(2) The first aid kits shall be distributed throughout the cabin, be readily available to crew members and to passengers, if any, and be clearly identified. If they are stowed in a bin or compartment, the bin or compartment shall be clearly marked as containing a first aid kit.

Protective Breathing Equipment

604.46 (1) No person shall conduct a take-off in a pressurized aircraft that is specified in a temporary private operator certificate, and that has flight attendants on board, unless one unit of protective breathing equipment with a 15-minute portable supply of breathing gas at a pressure-altitude of 8,000 feet is available

  • (a) at the entry into each Class A, B or E cargo compartment that is accessible to crew members during flight;
  • (b) at the site of each hand-held fire extinguisher located in an isolated galley;
  • (c) on the flight deck; and
  • (d) at the site of each hand-held fire extinguisher required under section 604.47 of the Regulations.

(2) If the breathable gas in the protective breathing equipment referred to in subsection (1) is oxygen, each unit of that equipment reduces by 15 minutes the crew member oxygen requirements specified in subsection 605.31(2) of the Regulations.

Hand-held Fire Extinguishers

604.47 No person shall conduct a take-off in an aircraft that is specified in a temporary private operator certificate unless

  • (a) hand-held fire extinguishers are available as follows:
    • (i) they are distributed, throughout every passenger compartment configured as follows, in the corresponding numbers:
      • (A) configured for fewer than 20 passenger seats, one extinguisher,
      • (B) configured for 20 to 60 passenger seats, two extinguishers,
      • (C) configured for 61 to 200 passenger seats, three extinguishers, and
      • (D) configured for 201 or more passenger seats, one additional extinguisher for each additional unit of 100 passenger seats,
    • (ii) one fire extinguisher is located at the entry into each Class E cargo compartment that is accessible to crew members during flight, and
    • (iii) one fire extinguisher is located in each isolated galley;
  • (b) the hand-held fire extinguisher required under clause (a)(i)(A) — or at least one of the hand-held fire extinguishers required under clause (a)(i)(B), (C) or (D) — contains Halon 1211 (bromochlorodifluoromethane) or its equivalent; and
  • (c) the bin or compartment, if any, in which a hand-held fire extinguisher is stowed is clearly marked as containing a fire extinguisher.

Division VIII — Maintenance

Maintenance Manager

604.48 (1) The maintenance manager appointed under paragraph 604.10(1)(a) is responsible for the maintenance control system.

(2) The maintenance manager may assign to another person management functions for specific maintenance control activities if the operations manual contains the following:

  • (a) a description of those functions; and
  • (b) a list of any persons, identified either by name or by position, to whom those functions may be assigned.

(3) The maintenance manager shall remove an aircraft from operation if the removal is justified because of non-compliance with the requirements of the Regulations or this Interim Order or because of a risk to the safety of the aircraft, persons or property.

Maintenance Control System

604.49 A private operator shall establish, in respect of its aircraft, a maintenance control system that includes the following:

  • (a) procedures to ensure that only parts and materials that meet the requirements of Subpart 71 of Part V of the Regulations are used in the performance of maintenance, elementary work and servicing, including
    • (i) the details of part pooling arrangements, if any, that have been entered into by the private operator, and
    • (ii) procedures used for the inspection and storage of incoming parts and materials;
  • (b) if the private operator authorizes, for the performance of elementary work, the use of methods, techniques, practices, parts, materials, tools, equipment or test apparatuses referred to in paragraph 571.02(1)(b) or (c) of the Regulations, the source of those methods, techniques, practices, parts, materials, tools, equipment or test apparatuses and a general description of the elementary work;
  • (c) procedures to record the servicing performed in respect of an aircraft;
  • (d) procedures to ensure that the persons who perform or request the performance of maintenance, elementary work or servicing meet the requirements of section 604.50;
  • (e) procedures to ensure that an aircraft is not dispatched unless it is
    • (i) airworthy, and
    • (ii) equipped and configured for the intended use;
  • (f) a description of the defect reporting and rectification procedures required by section 604.51;
  • (g) the aircraft service information review procedures required by section 604.53;
  • (h) procedures to ensure that the records referred to in section 604.54 are established, retained and provided in accordance with that section;
  • (i) procedures to ensure that tasks required by a maintenance schedule or by an airworthiness directive are completed within the time limits set out in Subpart 5 of Part VI of the Regulations;
  • (j) procedures to ensure that the aircraft empty weight and empty centre of gravity are entered in accordance with the requirements of Item 2 of Schedule I to Subpart 5 of Part VI of the Regulations;
  • (k) a general description of the maintenance schedule required by paragraph 605.86(1)(a) of the Regulations and, in the case of a turbine-powered pressurized aeroplane or a large aeroplane, the approval number of the maintenance schedule approved under subsection 605.86(2) of the Regulations; and
  • (l) procedures to ensure that the maintenance and elementary work performed in respect of an aircraft, and the defects of an aircraft, are recorded in a technical record kept under subsection 605.92(1) of the Regulations.

Maintenance, Elementary Work and Servicing

604.50 (1) No private operator shall authorize a person to perform maintenance, elementary work or servicing on its aircraft unless

  • (a) the person is an employee of the private operator and
    • (i) has received training in the performance rules set out in section 571.02 of the Regulations, the recording requirements set out in section 571.03 of the Regulations and the record-keeping requirements set out in section 605.92 of the Regulations, and
    • (ii) in the case of elementary work, has performed that work under the supervision of the holder of an aircraft maintenance engineer (AME) licence or the holder of an approved training organization certificate; or
  • (b) the person is authorized to do so under an agreement.

(2) The agreement referred to in paragraph (1)(b) shall

  • (a) be in writing;
  • (b) describe the maintenance, elementary work or servicing to be performed, including the specific tasks and activities and the conditions under which they are to be performed; and
  • (c) provide that the private operator is responsible for ensuring that the maintenance, elementary work or servicing is performed.

Defect Reporting and Rectification

604.51 A private operator shall establish procedures to ensure that

  • (a) the defects of an aircraft are recorded in accordance with subsection 605.94(1) of the Regulations;
  • (b) the defects of an aircraft are rectified in accordance with the requirements of Subpart 71 of Part V of the Regulations;
  • (c) the defects of an aircraft that recur three times within 15 flights are identified and are reported as recurring defects to the flight crew and maintenance personnel in order to avoid the repetition of unsuccessful attempts at rectification;
  • (d) aircraft defects the rectification of which is deferred under section 605.09 or 605.10 of the Regulations are scheduled for rectification; and
  • (e) the rectification of a recurring defect takes into account the methodology used in previous repair attempts.

Service Difficulty Reporting

604.52 A private operator shall report to the Minister, in accordance with Division IX of Subpart 21 of Part V of the Regulations, any service difficulty related to the aircraft that it operates under this Subpart.

Aircraft Service Information Review

604.53 A private operator shall establish procedures to ensure that

  • (a) it is aware of the aircraft service information that the manufacturer produces in respect of the aeronautical products used by the private operator;
  • (b) the aircraft service information is assessed and the results of this assessment are dated and signed by the maintenance manager and retained for six years; and
  • (c) the maintenance schedule or other procedure is, if necessary, amended in response to the assessment.

Personnel Records

604.54 A private operator shall establish, for each person who performs maintenance, elementary work or servicing on its aircraft, a record of the following, and shall retain the record for two years after the day on which an entry is made:

  • (a) whether the person is authorized under section 571.11 of the Regulations to sign a maintenance release as required by section 571.10 of the Regulations; and
  • (b) whether the person has performed elementary work in accordance with subparagraph 604.50(1)(a)(ii).

SCHEDULE 2
(Subsections 1(3) and 2(2) and (3))

DESIGNATED PROVISIONS

Column I
Designated Provision

Column II
Maximum Amount of Pe
nalty ($)

Individual

Corporation

DIVISION I — TEMPORARY PRIVATE
OPERATOR CERTIFICATE

Section 604.03

5,000

25,000

Section 604.08

1,000

 5,000

Section 604.09

1,000

5,000

Subsection 604.10(1)

3,000

15,000

DIVISION III — FLIGHT OPERATIONS —
DOCUMENTS

Subsection 604.13(1)

3,000

15,000

Subsection 604.15(1)

1,000

5,000

Subsection 604.15(2)

1,000

5,000

Subsection 604.15(3)

1,000

5,000

DIVISION IV — FLIGHT OPERATIONS —
OPERATIONS SPECIFICATIONS

Section 604.19

3,000

15,000

Section 604.20

3,000

15,000

Subsection 604.21(1)

3,000

15,000

Section 604.22

3,000

15,000

Section 604.23

3,000

15,000

Section 604.24

3,000

15,000

Section 604.26

3,000

15,000

Section 604.27

3,000

15,000

Section 604.28

3,000

15,000

Section 604.29

3,000

15,000

Subsection 604.30(1)

3,000

15,000

DIVISION V — FLIGHT OPERATIONS —
PASSENGERS

Subsection 604.31(1)

3,000

15,000

Subsection 604.32(1)

3,000

15,000

Subsection 604.32(2)

3,000

15,000

Subsection 604.32(3)

3,000

15,000

Subsection 604.32(4)

1,000

5,000

Subsection 604.33(2)

1,000

5,000

Subsection 604.34(1)

3,000

15,000

Subsection 604.34(2)

3,000

15,000

Section 604.35

3,000

15,000

DIVISION VI — FLIGHT TIME AND FLIGHT
DUTY TIME

Subsection 604.36(1)

5,000

25,000

Subsection 604.37(1)

3,000

15,000

Subsection 604.37(2)

3,000

15,000

Subsection 604.40(2)

1,000

5,000

Section 604.42

3,000

15,000

Section 604.43

3,000

15,000

DIVISION VII — EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

Subsection 604.44(1)

1,000

5,000

Subsection 604.45(1)

3,000

15,000

Subsection 604.46(1)

3,000

15,000

Section 604.47

3,000

15,000

DIVISION VIII — MAINTENANCE

Section 604.52

3,000

15,000

Section 604.54

1,000

5,000

[25-1-o]

NOTICE OF VACANCY

CANADA EMPLOYMENT INSURANCE COMMISSION

Commissioner for Workers (full-time position)

Salary: $117,600–$138,400

Location: Ottawa, Ontario

The Canada Employment Insurance Commission (CEIC) is an entity under the umbrella of the Department of Human Resources and Skills Development (HRSDC). Its main role is to assist HRSDC in managing the Employment Insurance Program.

The CEIC performs duties and functions in relation to employment insurance, employment services, and the development and utilization of labour market resources. It has four members, representing the interests of government, workers and employers. The Chairperson and Vice-Chairperson are respectively the Deputy Minister and Associate Deputy Minister of HRSDC and can be said to represent the interests of government. The other two Commissioners represent the interests of workers and employers.

The Commissioner for Workers ensures the interests, concerns and positions of Canadian workers are taken into account in the implementation of the CEIC’s mandate to administer legislation, develop and implement policy and program delivery under the Department of Human Resources Development Act and the Employment Insurance Act.

The successful candidate should have a degree from a recognized university in a relevant field of study or an acceptable combination of education, job-related training and/or experience.

The preferred candidate will have executive level management experience, in a private or public sector organization, including the management of financial and human resources, in addition to practical experience in the labour movement, such as with labour organizations or organizations of the unemployed. He/she will also have experience working with and providing advice to senior-level government officials, stakeholders and the labour community as well as experience developing, maintaining and managing successful stakeholder relationships and complex partnerships. Demonstrated decision-making experience with respect to sensitive issues is also required. Experience in the interpretation and application of legislation, government policies and directives in a quasi-judicial environment would be considered an asset.

The ideal candidate will have knowledge of the Employment Insurance Act, and CEIC’s mandate, its legislative framework and activities and of the development and use of labour market resources, from a worker’s point of view. A good understanding of the Canadian labour market and labour market policies in addition to knowledge of the public policy environment, processes and best practices is required. Knowledge of the operations of the federal government, including those related to sound management principles, accountability and transparency would be an asset.

The preferred candidate will be able to establish and maintain consultative and working relationships with a variety of labour organizations and representatives as well as be able to represent the interests of persons in the labour market at CEIC meetings and informal discussions concerning the development and implementation of regulations, policies and programs affecting the administration and delivery of employment insurance programs and services. He/she will also be able to analyze legislative policy, program and service delivery proposals to determine the impact the proposals will have upon the labour community in Canada. Possessing superior communication skills (written and oral), he/she will be able to act as a spokesperson in dealing with stakeholders, public institutions, governments, the public and other organizations.

The successful candidate will possess superior interpersonal skills, and be a fair and impartial individual who possesses sound judgement and integrity, exhibits tact and discretion and adheres to high ethical standards.

Proficiency in both official languages would be preferred.

The suitable candidate must be willing to reside in the National Capital Region or to a location within a reasonable commuting distance and must be willing to travel for extended periods of time across Canada to meet with constituents, interest groups and departmental staff. Travel can consume approximately 35% of the available work time.

The Government is committed to ensuring that its appointments are representative of Canada’s regions and official languages, as well as of women, Aboriginal peoples, disabled persons and visible minorities.

The preferred candidate must comply with the Ethical Guidelines for Public Office Holders and the Guidelines for the Political Activities of Public Office Holders. The guidelines are available on the Governor in Council Appointments Web site, under “Reference Material,” at www.appointments-nominations.gc.ca.

The selected candidate will be subject to the Conflict of Interest Act. Public office holders appointed on a full-time basis must submit to the Office of the Conflict of Interest and Ethics Commissioner, within 60 days of appointment, a Confidential Report in which they disclose all of their assets, liabilities and outside activities. For more information, please visit the Office of the Conflict of Interest and Ethics Commissioner’s Web site at http://ciec-ccie.gc.ca.

This notice has been placed in the Canada Gazette to assist the Governor in Council in identifying qualified candidates for this position. It is not, however, intended to be the sole means of recruitment.

Additional details about the Canada Employment Insurance Commission and its activities can be found on its Web site at www.hrsdc.gc.ca/eng/employment/ei/ceic/index.shtml.

Interested candidates should forward their curriculum vitae by June 30, 2011, to the Assistant Secretary to Cabinet (Senior Personnel), Privy Council Office, 59 Sparks Street, 1st Floor, Ottawa, Ontario K1A 0A3, 613-957-5006 (fax), GICA-NGEC@bnet.pco-bcp.gc.ca (email).

Bilingual notices of vacancies will be produced in an alternative format (audio cassette, diskette, Braille, large print, etc.) upon request. For further information, please contact Publishing and Depository Services, Public Works and Government Services Canada, Ottawa, Ontario K1A 0S5, 613-941-5995 or 1-800-635-7943.

[25-1-o]

BANK OF CANADA

Statement of financial position as at May 31, 2011

(Millions of dollars) Unaudited

ASSETS

Cash and foreign deposits

 

2.4

Loans and receivables

   

Securities purchased under resale agreements

924.1

 

Advances to members of the Canadian Payments Association

 

Advances to Governments

 

Other receivables

3.0

 
   

927.1

Investments

   

Treasury bills of Canada

20,502.6

 

Government of Canada bonds

40,484.4

 

Other investments

314.8

 
   

61,301.8

Property and equipment

 

151.2

Intangible assets

 

31.6

Other assets

 

204.6

   

62,618.7

LIABILITIES AND EQUITY

Bank notes in circulation

 

56,022.0

Deposits

   

Government of Canada

4,828.4

 

Members of the Canadian Payments Association

24.7

 

Other deposits

788.9

 
   

5,642.0

Liabilities in foreign currencies

   

Government of Canada

 

Other

 
     

Other liabilities

   

Securities sold under

   

repurchase agreements

 

Other liabilities

523.8

 
     

523.8

     

62,187.8

Equity

   

Share capital

5.0

 

Statutory and special reserves

125.0

 

Available-for-sale reserve

286.8

 

Actuarial gains reserve

14.1

 

Retained earnings

 
     

430.9

   

62,618.7

Effective January 1, 2011, the Bank of Canada adopted International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS).

I declare that the foregoing return is correct according to the books of the Bank.

Ottawa, June 10, 2011

L. RYAN
Acting Chief Accountant

I declare that the foregoing return is to the best of my knowledge and belief correct, and shows truly and clearly the financial position of the Bank, as required by section 29 of the Bank of Canada Act.

Ottawa, June 10, 2011

T. MACKLEM
Senior Deputy Governor

[25-1-o]

Footnote a
S.C. 1992, c. 4, s. 7

Footnote b
S.C. 2004, c. 15, s. 18

Footnote c
S.C. 2004, c. 15, s. 18

Footnote d
S.C. 2001, c. 29, s. 39

Footnote e
R.S., c. A-2

Footnote f
S.C. 2004, c. 15, s. 11(1)

Footnote g
R.S., c. A-2

Footnote h
S.C. 2004, c. 15, s. 11(1)

Footnote i
R.S., c. A-2